AP Inter 2nd Year

For systematic learning, students can include AP Inter 2nd Year English Grammar with Answers and Reading Comprehension (Non-Detailed) in English Inter 1st Year in their daily study routine.

AP Inter 2nd Year English Reading Comprehension (Non-Detailed) with Answers

Read the following passages carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Reading Comprehension (Non-Detailed) Text)

1. Holmes sat with his back to me. He had not seen me pick up the stick.
“Well, Watson, what do you make of it?” he asked.
“How did you know I was looking at it?” I said. “Do you have eyes in the back of your head?”

“I have,” he answered, “a good coffee-pot in front of me.” He smiled. “Now tell me what you think of our visitor from that stick.”
I tried to do what Holmes taught me. “He is a medical man,” I said. “He is liked by people who gave him this stick. He walks a great . deal, so he is probably a country doctor.”
Holmes nodded. “Good. But there is more.”

He pointed out things I had not seen. The letters “C.C.H.” on the band, he said, fit “Charing Cross Hospital.” That suggested the man had worked in London before going to the country.

Holmes said the marks on the stick showed a dog had carried it sometimes. From the bite marks he guessed the dog was a curly- haired spaniel.

Then I checked the Medical Directory on my shelf. There was a James Mortimer, M.R.C.S., living in Grimpen, Dartmoor.

Questions :

Question 1.
Why did Holmes know that Watson was examining the stick?
Answer:
Holmes could see Watson’s reflection in the shiny surface of the coffee-pot sitting in front of him.

Question 2.
What conclusion did Watson first make about the owner of the stick?
Answer:
Watson first concluded that the owner was a medical man (a doctor) who lived in the country and was well-liked by his patients.

Question 3.
What did Holmes say the letters “C.C.H.” on the stick referred to?
Answer:
Holmes said the letters stood for Charing Cross Hospital, suggesting the doctor had worked in London.

Question 4.
True or False: Holmes believed the stick had sometimes been carried by a dog.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
Vocabulary : Write the synonym of suggested.
Answer:
Indicated or Showed.

2. The paper was written long ago by a Baskerville ancestor. It told a fearful story from the time of the Civil War. The tale was about Hugo Baskerville, a wild and cruel man. Hugo fell in love with a young farmer’s daughter, but she would not go with him. One night he and some friends took the girl to Baskerville Hall and kept her there. She escaped by climbing down the ivy and ran across the moor toward home.

Hugo was mad with rage. He put a scarf of the girl on his hounds and sent them after her. He rode across the moonlit moor, shouting for the dogs to catch her. Others followed him.

They rode until they found the girl. She lay dead from fear and exhaustion. Near her lay Hugo, also dead. Over Hugo stood a terrible beast — a hound larger and darker than any hound a man had seen. Its eyes shone like fire.

The paper said the Baskerville family believed the hound had come as a curse on their house. The writer urged his sons to be careful and to avoid the moor at night.

Questions :

Question 1.
The story in the paper belonged to the time of the Civil War. (State True or False)
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Choose the correct answer: Hugo Baskerville is described as a
a) kind and gentle man
b) wild and cruel man
c) quiet and shy man
d) wise and thoughtful man
Answer:
b) wild and cruel man

Question 3.
The farmer’s daughter escaped from Baskerville Hall by climbing down the _____________.
Answer:
ivy

Question 4.
Arrange the events in the correct order:
a) Hugo sent the hounds after the girl
b) The girl escaped from Baskerville Hall
c) The men found Hugo and the girl dead
Answer:
b) The girl escaped from Baskerville Hall
a) Hugo sent the hounds after the girl
c) The men found Hugo and the girl dead

Question 5.
Vocabulary : Write the antonym of cruel.
Answer:
Kind or Gentle.

3. Holmes was angry that he had not been called earlier.

“If I had been there,” he said, “I might have read that gravel. Now the rain and the feet of curious people will have spoiled it.” Mortimer replied that he had good reasons for not calling a detective. He feared causing a public fuss and making the house seem haunted. But he also had to decide what to do about Sir Charles’s heir, who would arrive soon.

“You mean Sir Henry?” Holmes asked.
“Yes. He arrives at Waterloo in one hour and fifteen minutes.” Holmes liked facts and did not fear stories. But Mortimer told him that people on the moor had reported seeing a strange, shining creature — a large hound that looked ghostly.

Mortimer asked Holmes if the thing might be supernatural.
Holmes shook his head. “I work in this world,” he said. “I must try all natural explanations first.”

Questions :

Question 1.
Holmes was angry because he had been informed about the case too late. (State True or False)
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Choose the correct answer: Mortimer did not call a detective earlier because he _____________.
a) feared causing a public fuss
b) disliked Holmes
c) had already solved the case
d) did not know about the death
Answer:
a) feared causing a public fuss.

Question 3.
Sir Charles’s heir was expected to arrive at Waterloo in about _____________.
Answer:
one hour and fifteen minutes.

Question 4.
Complete the sentence: People on the moor reported seeing a strange _____________ that looked ghostly.
Answer:
shining creature.

Question 5.
Vocabulary: Write the synonym of feared.
Answer:
Dreaded or Worried.

4. Holmes was serious. “You had a new brown boot yesterday and an old black one today?”
“Yes. One new brown boot was taken last night. Today an old black one has gone. I had only three pairs.”

After lunch Holmes asked Sir Henry about his plans.
“To go to Baskerville Hall,” he said.

Holmes thought it a wise move. London was full of people and places where a watcher could hide. On the moor there were few people and fewer ways for a man to hide for long.

Holmes then sent a telegram to Grimpen. He asked the postmaster to deliver it into Barrymore’s own hand.

Sir Charles had left money to many people, Barrymore and his wife had received five hundred pounds each. The rest of the estate went to Sir Henry.

Sir Henry later found his missing brown boot under a cabinet. Another small mystery joined the others.

Questions :

Question 1.
Sir Henry was angry because one of his boots had gone missing. (State True or False)
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Choose the correct answer: Holmes thought Sir Henry should go to Baskerville Hall because
a) London was completely safe
b) the moor had many hiding places
c) London had many places where someone could watch him secretly
d) Sir Henry disliked London
Answer:
c) London had many places where someone could watch him secretly

Question 3.
Fill in the blank: Holmes sent a telegram to the postmaster at ____________.
Answer:
Grimpen

Question 4.
Barrymore and his wife received ________________ pounds each from Sir Charles’s will.
Answer:
five hundred

Question 5.
Vocabulary : Write the antonym of dangerous.
Answer:
Safe or Secure.

5. The next morning was bright. Sunlight fell through the tall windows. The dark wood of the hall looked warm and friendly. Sir Henry said that perhaps it was we who had been gloomy the night before, not the house.

But I remembered a sound from that night. I had clearly heard a woman sobbing. We asked Barrymore about it. He said there were only two women in the house: his wife and a scullery-maid. He swore the crying could not have been his wife.

Later I met Mrs. Barrymore in the corridor. The sun shone full upon her face. Her eyes were red, and she wiped them quickly when she saw me. Yet she had clearly been weeping.

After breakfast I walked to the small grey hamlet. The postmaster said his boy had delivered the telegram. The boy said he had given it to Mrs. Barrymore because Mr. Barrymore was in the loft at the time. So Barrymore had not received it in his own hand. Holmes’s test had failed.

Questions :

Question 1.
The hall looked dark and frightening in the morning sunlight. (State True or False)
Answer:
False.

Question 2.
Choose the correct answer : Barrymore said the crying in the night could not have been
a) the scullery-maid
b) his wife
c) Sir Henry
d) the postmaster
Answer:
b) his wife

Question 3.
Complete the sentence: The narrator remembered hearing a woman ________________ during the night.
Answer:
sobbing (or crying).

Question 4.
The telegram meant for Barrymore was actually received by ______________.
Answer:
MRS. Barrymore (his wife)

Question 5.
Vocabulary : Pick a word from the passage that means village.
Answer:
Hamlet

6. A few days passed. I wrote to Holmes with news from the moor. I told him the place seemed older than our time. Stone circles and ancient huts lay scattered over the land. The moor made the mind feel small and old. I also told Holmes that the escaped convict from Princetown was probably gone, since no one had seen him for some weeks.

I described the Stapletons in my letters. Stapleton had once been a schoolmaster and loved natural history. His sister also shared his interest. She had a strange, almost foreign look. Sir Henry liked her very much and was often with them. I thought a match might come of it, though Stapleton did not seem to encourage it. Another neighbour, Mr. Frankland of Lafter Hall, was a red-faced old man who loved the law and quarrels. He spent money on lawsuits and used a telescope to watch the moor for the escaped convict.

The most worrying matter concerned the Barrymores. The telegram meant to test Barrymore had been given to Mrs. Barrymore by the postmaster’s boy. She said she would pass it to her husband. Barrymore later claimed he had been in the box-room when it arrived and that his wife had written the reply for him. His. explanation did not seem convincing.

Questions :

Question 1.
The narrator wrote to Holmes saying that the moor seemed very ancient and full of old remains. (State True or False)
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Choose the correct answer: Stapleton had worked earlier as a
a) doctor
b) schoolmaster
c) lawyer
d) farmer
Answer:
b) schoolmaster

Question 3.
Complete the sentence: Mr. Frankland used a _________________ to watch the moor.
Answer:
telescope

Question 4.
Sir Henry seemed to like Miss Stapleton very much. (Agree / Disagree based on the passage).
Answer:
Agree.

Question 5.
Vocabulary: Pick a word from the passage that means old or belonging to a very early time.
Answer:
Ancient.

7. I checked the western window where Barrymore had been. From that spot one can look straight down on the moor. No other window gives that view. So Barrymore had been watching the moor that night.

Sir Henry and I decided to find out the truth. The second night we sat very quietly. At last we heard a creak in the passage. Barrymore passed. We followed him softly until he reached the empty rooms at the far end. There he crouched at the western window holding a candle against the glass. He looked out into the black moor as if he expected an answer.

Sir Henry burst in and caught him. Barrymore was white and shaking. After a while his wife burst into the room and confessed. Her brother-in-law was Selden, the escaped convict from Princetown. He had come to the Hall at night, worn out and starving. The Barrymores had hidden him. They left a light in the window when food was ready. Selden answered with his own light on the moor.

Questions :

Question 1.
Barrymore stood at the western window because it gave a clear view of the moor. (State True or False)
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Choose the correct answer: Barrymore held a candle at the window in order to
a) read a letter
b) signal someone on the moor
c) light the room
d) look for Sir Henry
Answer:
b) signal someone on the moor

Question 3.
Complete the sentence: Selden was the escaped convict from _____________.
Answer:
Princetown.

Question 4.
Arrange the events in the correct order:
a) Mrs. Barrymore confessed the truth
b) Sir Henry and the narrator followed Barrymore
c) Barrymore stood at the window with a candle
Answer:
b) Sir Henry and the narrator followed Barrymore

Question 5.
Vocabulary: Pick a word from the passage that means admitted the truth.
Answer:
Confessed.

8. Hiding in the hut, revolver cocked, Watson expected the unknown tenant. Instead he heard a familiar voice. Holmes stepped in from outside, lean and bronzed, having come secretly to investigate. Holmes explained that he had been living secretly on the moor and had been following the case. He confirmed what Watson had learned about Laura Lyons and revealed an important truth: the woman known as Miss Stapleton was actually Stapleton’s wife. Stapleton had hidden their marriage so that she would appear to be a free woman.

Holmes warned that Stapleton was cunning and dangerous.

Before they could act on this discovery, a long, haunting cry rolled across the moor. Soon after came a nearer shriek of terror. Holmes and Watson ran toward the sound and found a body lying face¬down with the skull crushed. At first they thought it was Sir Henry because of the tweed suit, but in the moonlight Holmes saw the beard and recognised the man as Selden, the escaped convict.

Questions :

Question 1.
Where was Watson hiding when he waited for the unknown tenant?
Answer:
Watson was hiding in a hut on the moor.

Question 2.
Choose the correct answer: Holmes had been secretly living on the moor with the help of
a) Sir Henry
b) Cartwright
c) Barrymore
d) Frankland
Answer:
b) Cartwright

Question 3.
The woman known as Miss Stapleton was actually Stapleton’s wife. (State True or False)
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
Holmes and Watson first believed the dead body on the moor was _____________.
Answer:
Sir Henry.

Question 5.
Vocabulary: Pick a word from the passage that means clever but dangerous.
Answer:
Cunning

9. Sir Henry was not surprised to see Holmes again—he had half expected it. But he looked puzzled when Holmes appeared without luggage and without any clear reason for his return. Over supper, Holmes and I told him only part of our adventure.

Then came the sad duty of telling Barrymore and his wife about Selden’s death. The butler remained calm, but his wife wept bitterly for the man who was her little brother.

Sir Henry then said, “I had a message from Stapleton asking me to come to dinner tonight. I stayed home only because I promised not to go alone.”

Holmes said, “Tomorrow you will dine with Stapleton as planned. Watson and I will be away in London—or so they will think. You will walk home alone across the moor afterward.”
Sir Henry agreed, though he looked uneasy.

Before leaving, Holmes stopped before a portrait in Baskerville Hall. It showed Hugo Baskerville. Holmes covered the old- fashioned hair and hat with his hand, and the face beneath looked very familiar. “Stapleton!” I cried.

Questions :

Question 1.
Why did Mrs. Barrymore weep when she heard about Selden’s death?
Answer:
She wept because Selden was her little brother.

Question 2.
Choose the correct answer: Sir Henry did not go to Stapleton’s dinner because
a) he was ill
b) he had promised not to go alone
c) he disliked Stapleton
d) he was busy at the Hall
Answer:
b) he had promised not to go alone

Question 3.
Holmes asked Sir Henry to walk home _____________ across the moor after dinner.
Answer:
Alone

Question 4.
Holmes believed that the portrait of Hugo Baskerville closely resembled Stapleton. (State True or False)
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
Vocabulary: Pick a word from the passage that means confused or uncertain.
Answer:
Puzzled (or uneasy).

10. When the fog lifted the next morning, Mrs. Stapleton led us to the path through the bog. We followed the thin wands that marked the safe way. The ground trembled beneath us, and foul water sucked at our boots. At one place Holmes suddenly sank to his waist as he reached for something dark sticking out of the mud — Sir’Henry’s missing boot. “He used it to set the hound on the scent,” said Holmes.

We never found Stapleton’s body. The bog had swallowed him. But in the ruins of the tin mine we found the hound’s chain and the bones of another dog — Dr. Mortimer’s missing spaniel. In a small tin box we also discovered the paste that had made the hound glow with that strange light.

“It was a cunning plan,” said Holmes. “The legend of the hound was his weapon. He used fear to kill Sir Charles and nearly killed Sir Henry.”

Sir Henry slowly recovered under Dr. Mortimer’s care. Later he left England for a long voyage around the world to restore his health. The moor was quiet again. The hound was dead, and the Baskerville curse was finally ended.

Questions :

Question 1.
Who showed Holmes and Watson the safe path across the bog?
Answer:
Mrs. Stapleton showed them the way

Question 2.
Choose the correct answer: Holmes sank into the bog while trying to take
a) a lantern
b) Sir Henry’s boot
c) a chain
d) a stick
Answer:
b) Sir Henry’s boot

Question 3.
Complete the sentence: In the ruins of the tin mine they found the hound’s chain and the bones of Dr. Mortimer’s _____________.
Answer:
Spaniel (or missing dog)

Question 4.
Stapleton used the old legend of the hound to frighten people and carry out his plan. (State True or False)
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Vocabulary: Pick a word from the passage that means restored to’ health.
Answer:
Recovered

For systematic learning, students can include AP Inter 2nd Year English Grammar with Answers and Reading Comprehension (Unseen Passages) in English Inter 1st Year in their daily study routine.

AP Inter 2nd Year English Reading Comprehension (Unseen Passages) with Answers

Read the following passages carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Reading Comprehension

Comprehension is a very important skill. It refers to the process of understanding the information presented in a written or oral text. In the Intermediate Public Examination (English), the students’ ability to understand a printed text is tested. This is, therefore, classified as ‘reading comprehension’. Understanding a spoken text is known as ‘listening comprehension’.

Comprehension is the ability to read a passage carefully, understand its meaning, and think about the ideas it conveys. It is not just about reading the words—it is about grasping the message, the emotions, and the lessons behind them.

In the Public examination, questions of various types follow the given text. Understanding the questions properly is as or rather more, important as understanding the text. Reading the questions first, therefore, will be of some help in improving one’s comprehension skills.

Careful observation of the way the given language is used and regular practice will ensure mastering this all-important skill – comprehension.

Exercise

Read the following passages carefully and answer the questions that follow.

1. One evening, a hungry dog found a piece of meat and ran home happily, holding it tightly in his mouth. On his way, he had to cross a small wooden bridge over a stream. As he looked down into the water, he saw his own reflection—but he thought it was another dog carrying a larger piece of meat.

Greedy and excited, he thought, “If I can get that meat too, I’ll have twice as much!” Without a second thought, he snapped at the “other dog” in the water. But the moment he opened his mouth to bite, his own piece of meat fell into the stream and was carried away by the current.

The dog stood there helplessly, watching the water flow. He had lost everything because he could not resist his greed. Slowly, he walked back, hungry and wiser.

This small story carries a big lesson. Often in life, people lose what they already have because they run after something that only appears better. Greed makes us blind to what is real and valuable. Contentment, on the other hand, brings peace.

Moral: Greed often causes us to lose even what we already possess.
(Source: The Dog and His Reflection by Aesop)

Questions :

Question 1.
What did the dog find at the beginning of the story, and how did he feel about it?
Answer:
The dog found a piece of meat. He felt very happy about his find and held it tightly in his mouth as he ran home.

Question 2.
What did the dog see when he looked into the stream?
Answer:
He saw his own reflection in the water. However, he mistakenly thought it was another dog carrying a piece of meat that looked even larger than his own.

Question 3.
Why did the dog lose the piece of meat he already had?
Answer:
He lost it because he was greedy and impulsive. When he opened his mouth to bark or snap at the “other dog” to take its meat, his own piece fell into the stream and was swept away by the current.

Question 4.
According to the passage, how does greed affect people in real life?
Answer:
According to the passage, greed makes people blind to what is real and valuable. It often causes people to lose what they already possess because they are chasing after something that only appears to be better.

Question 5.
What is the moral or main message of this fable?
Answer:
The main message is that greed often causes us to lose even what we already possess. In short: be content with what you have rather than risking it all for something illusory.

2. It is often said that time reveals the true nature of people and things. However, this saying is not entirely accurate. Time does not simply uncover a fixed truth – it shows us the many forms that truth can take. Human beings, like everything else in nature, are constantly changing, adapting, and evolving. What we call a person’s “true nature” may, in fact, be only one of their many phases. A fitting example can be found in the elements hydrogen and oxygen, which exist as ice, water, and steam. In each state, it remains chemically “the same—two parts hydrogen and one part oxygen – yet its form, texture, and behavior change completely according to its environment. Similarly, people too respond differently to different circumstances. A person who appears calm today might act differently under pressure tomorrow, not because they are pretending, but because their nature is fluid and responsive. Just as H, O cannot be defined by any one of its forms, a person or situation cannot be judged by a single moment in time. True understanding, therefore, lies not in waiting for time to “reveal” someone, but in recognizing that change itself is a part of every true nature.

Questions :

Question 1.
What common saying is discussed at the beginning of the passage?
Answer:
The common saying discussed at the beginning is: “Time reveals the true nature of people and things.”

Question 2.
Why does the author believe that this saying is not entirely accurate?
Answer:
The author believes it is not entirely accurate because time doesn’t just uncover a fixed truth; instead, it shows the many different forms that truth can take as things change and evolve.

Question 3.
How is H₂O used as an example to explain the idea of change?
Answer:
H₂O is used to show that while it remains chemically the same (H₂O), it can exist as ice, water, or steam depending on its environment. This illustrates how one thing can have completely different behaviors and forms.

Question 4.
According to the passage, why should we not judge people or situations by a single moment in time?
Answer:
We should not judge by a single moment because a person’s nature is fluid and responsive. Like H20, a person may act differently under different pressures or circumstances without “pretending.”

Question 5.
What does the author mean when they say that “change itself is a part of every true nature”?
Answer:
The author means that being able to adapt, evolve, and change is a natural characteristic of humans. Therefore, to truly understand someone, we must accept their ability to change rather than looking for one “fixed” personality.

3. Setting a goal is one of the most important steps toward building a meaningful life. However, many people choose their goals for the wrong reasons. They aim to impress others, to gain praise, to prove that they are better than someone else, or to prove others wrong. Such goals are driven by ego or the need for external validation. When our motivation depends on what others think, we become trapped by their opinions. Our happiness begins to rely on their approval, and our sense of worth becomes fragile. True goals, on the other hand, are born from joy and self-satisfaction. When we choose something because it excites us, challenges us, and helps us grow, the journey itself becomes rewarding. Even small achievements feel meaningful because they reflect our effort and passion. Joy-based goals give us freedom – they let us explore our real abilities and appreciate the process rather than just the result. In contrast, ego-based goals often leave us exhausted and empty, even when we succeed. Therefore, before setting a goal, we must ask ourselves a simple question: Does this make me happy, or am I doing it to please or prove others wrong? The answer decides whether our goal will liberate us or confine us.

Questions :

Question 1.
According to the passage, what are some wrong reasons for setting goals?
Answer:
According to the passage, some wrong reasons include aiming to impress others, gaining praise, trying to prove you are better than someone else, or proving others wrong.

Question 2.
How does seeking external validation affect a person’s, happiness?
Answer:
When we seek external validation, our happiness begins to rely on the approval of others, making our sense of self-worth fragile and trapping us by their opinions.

Question 3.
In what way do joy-based goals give us freedom?
Answer:
Joy-based goals give us freedom because they allow us to explore our real abilities and appreciate the entire process of growth rather than just the final result.

Question 4.
Why do ego-based goals often leave people feeling exhausted or
Answer:
Ego-based goals leave people exhausted because the motivation is driven by pressure and the need to please others, which feels empty even when a person succeeds.

Question 5.
What important question should we ask ourselves before setting a goal ?
Answer:
Before setting a goal, we should ask : “Does this make me happy, or am I doing it to please or prove others wrong ?”

4. Harekala Hajabba, a humble fruit seller from Mangalore, Karnataka, is an extraordinary example of how one person’s dream can change an entire community. Bom into poverty and unable to afford schooling himself, Hajabba spent his life selling oranges at the Hampankatta bus stop. He had never travelled abroad or received a formal education, yet he carried within him a deep desire to make a difference.

One day, a foreign tourist asked him the price of an orange in English—a language Hajabba did not understand. Embarrassed by his ignorance, he decided that no child from his village should face the same situation. From that moment, he began saving a part of his small daily income to build a school in his village, Newpadapu.

For years, Hajabba collected money patiently, rupee by rupee. His dream finally came true when a school was built in 2001. Today, hundreds of children study there-many of them the first in their families to receive an education.

In 2020, the Government of India honoured Harekala Hajabba with the Padma Shri, one of the country’s highest civilian awards. His story proves that true greatness lies not in wealth or power but in selfless purpose.

Questions :

Question 1.
What was Harekala Hajabba’s occupation, and where was he from?
Answer:
Harekala Hajabba was a fruit seller who sold oranges, and he was from Mangalore, Karnataka.

Question 2.
Why did Hajabba feel embarrassed when a foreign tourist spoke to him?
Answer:
He felt embarrassed because a foreign tourist asked him the price of an orange in English, and he could not understand or answer the tourist.

Question 3.
What decision did Hajabba make after this incident?
Answer:
He decided that no child from his village should face the same situation and began saving his small income to build a school in his village.

Question 4.
What recognition did the Government of India give to Harekala Hajabba, and in which year?
Answer:
The Government of India honored him with the Padma Shri award in the year 2020.

Question 5.
What important message does Hajabba’s story teach us about true greatness and purpose?
Answer:
The story teaches us that true greatness does not come from wealth or power, but from having a selfless purpose and the desire to help others.

5. Time is the most valuable thing we have, yet it is also the easiest to lose. For students, learning to manage time wisely can decide not just academic success but also personal happiness. However, managing time does not mean studying every minute of the day. The difference lies between wasting time and investing time. Wasting time means using it on things that neither help us grow nor bring any real joy – such as mindless scrolling, addictive gaming, or endless chatting. These activities may feel relaxing at first, but they often leave us feeling tired, distracted, and guilty afterward.

In contrast, investing time means using it in ways that improve our body, mind, or relationships. Spending time with family, exercising,, or enjoying a healthy conversation with friends are all valuable investments. They keep us emotionally balanced and mentally strong, which in turn helps us perform better in studies and life. Even taking breaks, pursuing hobbies, or resting well are forms of time investment when done mindfully.

A student who studies all the time should remember that balance is key—too much pressure can be harmful. Similarly, a student lost in distractions must realize that every wasted minute is a lost opportunity. Life itself is the sum of how we spend our time. To live wisely, we must choose to invest our time in what helps us grow, brings joy, and builds meaning. After all, once time is gone, no one can earn it back.

Questions :

Question 1.
According to the passage, what is the main difference between wasting time and investing time?
Answer:
The difference lies in how the time affects us. Wasting time involves activities that do not help us grow or bring real joy, while investing time means using it in ways that improve our body, mind, or relationships.

Question 2.
Why are activities like mindless scrolling or addictive gaming considered a waste of time?
Answer:
These activities are considered a waste because they do not contribute to personal growth. Although they may feel relaxing at first, they often leave a person feeling tired, distracted, and guilty afterward.

Question 3.
What kind of activities are described as valuable investments of time?
Answer:
The passage lists spending time with family, exercising, having healthy conversations with friends, pursuing hobbies, and resting well as valuable investments.

Question 4.
How does investing time in family, health, or friendships help students in their studies?
Answer:
Investing time in health and relationships keeps students emotionally balanced and mentally strong. This internal stability, in turn, helps them perform better in their studies and in life.

Question 5.
What advice does the passage give to extremely studious students and to those who are easily distracted?
Answer:
Advice for both types of students:
For extremely studious students: They should remember that balance is key, as putting too much pressure on oneself can be harmful.
For distracted students: They must realize that every wasted minute is a lost opportunity and that life is the sum of how we spend our time.

6. In today’s world, marketing is not just about selling products—it is about shaping how we think. Advertisers have learned to use language in clever ways to make even unnecessary or unhealthy things seem desirable. Words are no longer just words; they are tools of persuasion. For example, the phrase “Retail Therapy” makes shopping sound like a cure for sadness, as if buying things could heal emotional pain. Similarly, “Energy Drinks” suggest health and power, even though many of them are filled with sugar and caffeine.

Social media has also changed how marketing works. When someone is called an “influencer, ” it sounds positive—someone who inspires others. But in reality, many influencers are paid to promote products they may not even use, turning friendship and trust into business. Even the idea of “sharing ” on social media is misleading. We are not truly sharing; we are helping companies collect our attention and data.

Other examples include terms like “Limited Edition” that create false urgency, and the “Gig Economy” being called “flexible, ” when it often means unstable and stressful work. Similarly, “Diet” or “Zero” drinks sound healthy but are usually full of artificial chemicals.

Students must learn to read between the lines. The goal of marketing is often not to inform but to influence. Understanding how language is used to shape our choices helps us become wiser consumers. Instead of believing every catchy phrase, we should ask: Who benefits from this message—and at what cost? True freedom lies in seeing beyond the words and thinking for ourselves.

Questions:

Question 1.
According to the passage, how does modern marketing use language to influence people?
Answer:
Modern marketing uses language in clever and persuasive ways to make unnecessary or unhealthy products seem desirable and positive.

Question 2.
What does the phrase “Retail Therapy” suggest, and why is it misleading?
Answer:
The phrase suggests that shopping is a cure for sadness that can heal emotional pain, which is misleading because it frames spending money as a medical or emotional treatment.

Question 3.
How does the passage explain the true meaning behind the word “Influencer” on social media?
Answer:
While the word sounds positive and inspiring, the passage explains that many influencers are actually paid to promote products, turning personal trust and friendship into a business transaction.

Question 4.
What false impression do terms like “Limited Edition ” and “Flexible Work” create?
Answer:
“Limited Edition” creates a false sense of urgency, while “Flexible Work” (in the Gig Economy) often hides the reality of unstable and stressful working conditions.

Question 5.
What important question does the author suggest we ask ourselves to become wiser consumers?
Answer:
The author suggests we should ask: “Who benefits from this message—and at what cost?”

7. Your body is the only place you will live in for the rest of your life – so take care of it. Physical fitness is not about lifting heavy weights or building muscles; it is about feeling strong, active, and alive. A healthy body helps you think better, feel happier, and face each day with energy. Yet, most students spend hours sitting, scrolling, or studying without movement, forgetting that the body too needs attention and care.

Exercise does not need a gym or fancy shoes. You can begin right at home – stretch when you wake up, do a few jumping jacks, or take a quick jog around your street. Push-ups, squats, and skipping can all be done in minutes, but their benefits last the whole day. These small efforts improve focus, boost mood, and build confidence.

Remember, a strong mind grows inside a healthy body. When you move, you feel lighter – not just in your body, but in your heart too. So, make time every day to move, breathe, and feel your strength. Exercise is not a duty; it is a celebration of what your body can do.

Questions:

Question 1.
According to the passage, what is the true purpose of physical fitness ?
Answer:
The true purpose of physical fitness is to feel strong, active, and alive, rather than just lifting heavy weights or building muscles.

Question 2.
Why do many students forget to take care of their bodies ?
Answer:
Many students forget because they spend hours sitting, scrolling, or studying without moving their bodies.

Question 3.
What simple exercises does the passage suggest students can do at home?
Answer:
The passage suggests stretching upon waking up, doing jumping jacks, jogging, push-ups, squats, and skipping.

Question 4.
How does regular exercise help improve a student’s focus and mood?
Answer:
Regular exercise helps because it makes a person feel lighter in their heart, boosts their mood, and helps a “strong mind” grow inside a healthy body.

Question 5.
What does the author mean by saying, “Exercise is not a duty; it is a celebration of what your body can do”?
Answer:
The author means that exercise should be a positive experience where you appreciate your body’s capabilities, rather than a boring or forced chore.

8. D’Artagnan, a young and brave man from Gascony, had just arrived in Paris with dreams of joining the king’s musketeers. One evening, at an inn, he overheard three musketeers-Athos, Porthos, and Aramis-being insulted by a group of royal guards trailed the Cardinal’s men. D’Artagnan’s pride flared. He stepped forward and challenged the guards to a duel, despite being alone and inexperienced.

The night air was tense as swords clashed. Sparks flew as the young, Gascon fought with all his courage. Seeing his skill and bravery, the three musketeers joined him. Together, they defeated the guards, who retreated in fear. After the fight, Athos, Porthos, and Aramis admired D’Artagnan’s courage and decided to take him as their friend. From that moment, a strong bond was formed between the four young men-loyalty, bravery, and honor guiding their every adventure.

This event marked the beginning of D’Artagnan’s journey, showing that courage and friendship are more powerful than fear or insults.

Questions:

Question 1.
Who is D’Artagnan, and what is his main ambition?
Answer:
D’Artagnan was a brave young man from Gascony who dreamed of joining the King’s Musketeers in Paris.

Question 2.
Why did D’Artagnan challenge the Cardinal’s men at the inn?
Answer:
He challenged them because his pride flared after overhearing the Cardinal’s men insulting the three musketeers at an inn.

Question 3.
How did the three musketeers-Athos, Porthos, and Aramis-react to D’Artagnan’s courage?
Answer:
The three musketeers were Athos, Porthos, and Aramis.

Question 4.
What was the result of the duel for D’Artagnan and the musketeers?
Answer:
D’Artagnan and the three musketeers fought together and defeated the guards, causing them to retreat in fear.

Question 5.
What lesson does this passage teach about courage and friendship?
Answer:
Their bond was guided by loyalty, bravery, and honor, proving that friendship is more powerful than fear.

9. Every major human achievement-whether it’s running a sub-2-hour friendship is marathon, climbing Everest without oxygen, or leaping from the edge of space-first happened in the mind before it happened in reality. Physical barriers are often just the visible edge of unseen psychological walls. Once someone proves those walls can be crossed, the impossible becomes merely “difficult.”

Roger Bannister’s four-minute mile is the classic example. For decades, experts claimed the human body couldn’t handle the stress of running that fast. Then Bannister ran 3:59 4 in 1954-and within a year, several others did the same. What changed wasn’t human physiology-it was belief.

The same holds true for modem feats like Eliud Kipchoge’s sub- 2-hour marathon (“No Human is Limited”)-a phrase that has become almost philosophical. It reminds us that evolution continues in our mindset as much as in our muscles.

Tme progress begins the moment someone decides that the limits everyone accepts aren’t real-that they’re just waiting to be redefined.

Questions :

Question 1.
According to the passage, where do major human achievements begin before they become reality?
Answer:
Major human achievements first happen in the mind before they ever happen in reality.

Question 2.
What does the author mean by saying that physical barriers are often “the visible edge of unseen psychological walls”?
Answer:
The author means that what we think are physical limits are actually just mental barriers or beliefs that stop us from trying harder.

Question 3.
Why is Roger Bannister’s four-minute mile considering a classic example of breaking limits?
Answer:
His run is a classic example because for decades experts said it was impossible; however, once he broke the record, others did the same because their beliefs changed.

Question 4.
How does Eliud Kipchoge’s phrase “No Human is Limited” relate to the main idea of the passage?
Answer:
The phrase “No Human is Limited” relates to the idea that evolution happens in our mindset and that we can redefine the limits that society accepts.

Question 5.
According to the author, when does true progress actually begin?
Answer:
True progress begins the moment someone decides that the accepted limits are not real and are simply waiting to be redefined.

10. Happiness is not something that depends on money, success, or comfort. It is untied from all the things we usually chase. People often believe that once they get a better job, buy a house, or find the right person, they will finally be happy. But real happiness does not wait for perfect situations. It comes from how we see life, not what we own. It is a state of mind-something that can exist even when everything else falls apart. When we stop tying happiness to outside things, we begin to see that it lies in gratitude, kindness, and inner peace.

A powerful example of this truth comes from Viktor Frankl, an Austrian doctor and writer who .survived the Auschwitz concentration camp during World War II. Surrounded by suffering and death, he realized that while the Nazis could control his body, they could never control his mind or spirit. He saw people who still helped each other, even in such terrible conditions. Frankl later wrote in Man’s Search for Meaning that everything can be taken from a person except the freedom to choose one’s attitude. Through his experience, he showed that happiness and hope come from within-not from what life gives, but from how we face it.

Questions :

Question 1.
What mistake do people often make when trying to find happiness?
Answer:
People often mistakenly believe that happiness depends on outside things like money, success, a better job, or buying a house.

Question 2.
Where does the passage suggest true happiness can be found?
Answer:
The passage suggests that true happiness is a state of mind found in gratitude, kindness, and inner peace, rather than in what we own.

Question 3.
Who was Viktor Frankl, and what situation did he survive during World War II?
Answer:
Viktor Frankl was an Austrian doctor and writer who survived the Auschwitz concentration camp during World War II.

Question 4.
What important lesson did Frankl learn and share in his book Man’s Search for Meaning?
Answer:
Frankl shared that everything can be taken from a person except the freedom to choose one’s attitude in any given set of circumstances.

Question 5.
How does Frankl’s experience support the idea that happiness and hope come from within?
Answer:
Frankl’s experience shows that even when he was surrounded by suffering and lost his physical freedom, he maintained his inner spirit and hope by choosing how he faced his situation.

Reviewing AP Inter 2nd Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 9 Biodiversity and Conservation Questions and Answers can help students prepare confidently for exams.

AP Inter 2nd Year Zoology 9th Lesson Biodiversity and Conservation Questions and Answers

IV. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Name the three important components of biodiversity.
Answer:
Three Components of Biodiversity:

1. Genetic Diversity: Variation in genes among individuals of the same species.
2. Species Diversity: Variety of different species found in a particular region.
3. Ecosystem Diversity: Variety of ecosystems and habitats present within a geographical area.

Question 2.
Define species richness.
Answer:

1. Species richness is the total number of different species present in a given area.
2. A greater number of species indicates higher species richness.

Formula: Log S = Log C + Z Log A (In the form y = mx + c)
Where: S = Species richness, A=Area, Z = Slope of the line (rate of increase), C=Y-intercept

Question 3.
Invasion of an Alien species leads to the extinction of native species. Justify this with two examples.
Answer:

1. The introduction of Nile perch into Lake Victoria resulted in the extinction of nearly 200 species of cichlid fishes.
2. The introduction of the African catfish reduced the population of native catfish because the indigenous species could not compete successfully with the invasive fish.

Question 4.
List any four sacred groves in India and their locations.
Answer:
Sacred groves are forest patches protected by local communities because of their religious and cultural importance.

1. Khasi and Jaintia Hills – Meghalaya
2. Aravalli Hills – Rajasthan and Gujarat
3. Sarguja (Bastar region) – Chhattisgarh.
4. Chanda – Madhya Pradesh

Question 5.
Write the full form of IUCN. In which book are threatened species listed?
Answer:

1. IUCN stands for International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources.
2. Threatened species are recorded in the IUCN Red Data Book (Red List).

Question 6.
Differentiate between in-situ and ex-situ conservation.
Answer:

V. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the reasons for greater biodiversity in the tropics?
Answer:

1. Tropical regions are located on both sides of the equator.
2. These regions have remained ecologically stable for millions of years.
3. They have experienced a long evolutionary history, allowing more time for species formation.
4. Extended evolutionary periods have promoted speciation, resulting in high biodiversity.
5. Tropical climates remain relatively constant throughout the year, encouraging niche specialization and species diversification.
6. Abundant sunlight and rainfall support high primary productivity, providing sufficient food resources for numerous organisms.
7. The Amazon Rainforest in South America is the richest region in terms of biodiversity.

Question 2.
Explain the “evil quartet”.
Answer:
The ‘evil quartet’ refers to the four major causes responsible for biodiversity loss. They are:

1. Habitat Loss and Fragmentation
2. Over-exploitation
3. Invasion of Alien Species
4. Co-extinction

1. Habitat Loss and Fragmentation :

• Deforestation destroys natural habitats.
• Conversion of forests into agricultural land reduces wildlife habitats.
• Pollution degrades habitat quality.
• Fragmentation divides large habitats into smaller isolated patches, reducing population size.

2. Over-exploitation:

• Excessive use of biological resources leads to species decline and extinction.
• Examples include the extinction of the Passenger Pigeon and Steller’s Sea Cow.

3. Invasion of Alien Species:

• Introduced species establish themselves and outcompete native organisms.
• Example: Nile perch introduced into Lake Victoria caused the extinction of many native cichlid fishes.

4. Co-extinction: When one species becomes extinct, another species that depends entirely on it also becomes extinct. Examples: Host-parasite and plant-pollinator relationships.

Question 3.
Explain in brief biodiversity hotspots.
Answer:

1. The idea of Biodiversity Hotspots was proposed by Norman Myers.
2. A biodiversity hotspot is a biogeographical region that contains exceptionally rich biodiversity but is under severe threat due to human activities.
3. These regions possess high species richness and high endemism. and are among the world’s most threatened terrestrial ecosystems.
4. There are about 34 biodiversity hotspots across the world. Examples: Western Ghats, Sri Lanka, Indo-Burma, and the Himalayas.

5. These ecologically important regions are protected through:

• Biosphere Reserves
• National Parks
• Wildlife Sanctuaries
• Sacred Groves.

Question 4.
Explain the “Rivet Popper hypothesis”.
Answer:

1. The Rivet Popper Hypothesis, proposed by Paul Ehrlich, explains the impact of species loss on ecosystem stability.
2. It compares an ecosystem to an airplane.
3. In this analogy, each rivet represents a different species.
4. Losing a few rivets from less important parts may not immediately affect the airplane.
5. However, removing rivets from critical parts such as the wings may lead to the aircraft crashing.
6. Similarly, the gradual disappearance of species weakens ecosystem functioning.
7. The extinction of keystone or critical species can seriously affect the stability of the entire ecosystem.

Question 5.
Write short notes on Ex-situ conservation.
Answer:
Ex-situ conservation is the conservation of endangered species outside their natural habitats under protected and controlled conditions.
Purpose: It is adopted when species are highly endangered and cannot survive safely in the wild.
Conservation Facilities Includes Zoos, Botanical Gardens, Wildlife Parks, and safari parks

Advanced Methods:

• Cryopreservation: Long-term preservation of gametes, embryos, or tissues at’very low temperatures.
• In Vitro Fertilization (IVF): Fertilization carried out under laboratory conditions.
• Tissue Culture: Multiplication and conservation of rare plant species.
• Seed Banks: Long-term storage of seeds to preserve plant diversity.

Importance: Ex-situ conservation helps protect endangered species, preserves genetic diversity, and supports future reintroduction of species into their natural habitats.

I. Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Among the following, select the significance of a biodiversity hotspot?
1. High levels of species richness and high degree of endemism
2. Low species richness and high levels of habitat destruction.
3. High species richness and low levels of habitat loss.
4. Areas with no endemic species but high levels of human impact.
Answer:
1. High levels of species richness and a high degree of endemism

Question 2.
Which of the following is an example of in situ conservation?
1. Seed bank
2. Botanical garden
3. National Park
4. Cryopreservation of gametes
Answer:
3. National Park

Question 3.
Which of the following is NOT a part of the Evil Quartet?
1. Habitat loss and fragmentation
2. Over-exploitation
3. Alien species invasions
4. Climate change
Answer:
4. Climate change

Question 4.
Assertion: IUCN Red List provides information on endangered and threatened species.
Reason: It helps in assessing the risk of extinction and guides conservation priorities.
1. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3. If assertion is true but reason is false.
4. If Assertion is false and Reason is true.
Answer:
1. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 5.
Match List-I with List-II.

Options:
1) a-ii, b-iii, c-v, d-iv, e-i
2) a-iii, b-i, c-.iv, d-ii, e-v
3) a-ii b-iii, c-v, d-iv, e-ii
4) a-v, b-iv, c-ii, d-i, e-iii
Answer:
2) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii, e-v

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. The Earth Summit (1992), which led to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), was held at …………………… .
Answer:
Rio de Janeiro (Brazil)

2. The thylacine, also called …………………………, became extinct in Australia.
Answer:
Tasmanian tiger

3. In the equation Log S = Log C + Z Log A, Z represents ……………………… .
Answer:
Slope of the line

4. The hotspot spread across northeastern India is called the ……………………………. hotspot.
Answer:
Indo-Burma Hotspot

5. Species like Steller’s Sea Cow went extinct mainly due to ………………… .
Answer:
Over exploitation

III. One Word Answer Questions

Question 1.
Which chemical obtained from the Rauwolfia vomitoria plant varies in concentration across different regions?
Answer:
Reserpine

Question 2.
Which rainforest is referred to as the lungs of the Earth planet?
Answer:
Amazon Rainforest

Question 3.
Name an extinct bird from Mauritius.
Answer:
Dodo

Question 4.
Which method of conservation protects tigers in India’s national parks?
Answer:
In-situ conservation

Question 5.
Which hills in Rajasthan are known for their sacred groves preserved by local villagers?
Answer:
Aravalli Hills.

Objective Questions

Question 1.
Biodiversity mainly refers to the diversity of:
1. Ecosystems only
2. Species only
3. Genes only
4. Life forms at all levels
Answer:
4. Life forms at all levels

Question 2.
The count of species occurring in a particular region is known as:
1. Population density
2. Ecosystem diversity
3. Species diversity
4. Genetic diversity
Answer:
3. Species diversity

Question 3.
The diversity of genes within the same species is termed:
1. Habitat diversity
2. Ecosystem diversity
3. Genetic diversity
4. Species diversity
Answer:
3. Genetic diversity

Question 4.
Diversity found at the habitat/ecosystem level is called:
1. Population diversity
2. Genetic diversity
3. Ecosystem diversity
4. Species diversity
Answer:
3. Ecosystem diversity

Question 5.
Which country possesses the greatest biodiversity?
1. Australia
2. Brazil
3. USA
4. India
Answer:
2. Brazil

Question 6.
India is recognized as a:
1. Desert region
2. Biodiversity hotspot
3. Cold spot
4. Low diversity region
Answer:
2. Biodiversity hotspot

Question 7.
Regions showing high species richness and high endemism are known as:
1. Niches
2. Hotspots
3. Ecosystems
4. Cold spots
Answer:
2. Hotspots

Question 8.
Endemic species are restricted to:
1. Water bodies only
2. One specific region only
3. All regions
4. Two regions
Answer:
2. One specific region only

Question 9.
Which among the following is an endemic species of India?
1. Lion
2. Tiger
3. Nilgiritahr
4. Elephant
Answer:
3. Nilgiritahr

Question 10.
The estimated number of species present worldwide is:
1. 500 million
2. 8.7 million
3. 1 million
4. 100 million
Answer:
2. 8.7 million

Question 11.
Which animal group contains the highest number of species?
1. Birds
2. Fish
3. Insects
4. Mammals
Answer:
3. Insects

Question 12.
Biodiversity reaches its maximum near the:
1. Mountains
2. Equator
3. Deserts
4. Poles
Answer:
2. Equator

Question 13.
Species richness generally decreases from:
1. East to West
2. Equator to poles
3. Poles to equator
4. North to south only
Answer:
2. Equator to poles

Question 14.
The species-area relationship was established by:
1. Lamarck
2. Alexander von Humboldt
3. Darwin
4. Mendel
Answer:
2. Alexander von Humboldt

Question 15.
The species-area relationship follows which type of graph?
1. Random
2. Linear
3. Logarithmic
4. Circular
Answer:
3. Logarithmic

Question 16.
Biodiversity loss is mainly caused by:
1. Mutation
2. Human activities
3. Migration
4. Natural selection
Answer:
2. Human activities

Question 17.
Habitat destruction is considered the major cause of:
1. Migration
2. Biodiversity loss
3. Evolution
4. Mutation
Answer:
2. Biodiversity loss

Question 18.
Excessive exploitation of natural resources leads to:
1. Conservation
2. Mutation
3. Growth
4. Biodiversity loss
Answer:
4. Biodiversity loss

Question 19.
Introduction of alien species mainly results in:
1. Isolation
2. Mutation
3. Balance
4. Competition
Answer:
4. Competition

Question 20.
The introduction of Nile perch mainly affected the biodiversity of:
1. Australia
2. Africa
3. America
4. India
Answer:
2. Africa

Question 21.
Which of the following is NOT responsible for biodiversity loss?
1. Habitat loss
2. Pollution
3. Conservation
4. Over-exploitation
Answer:
3. Conservation

Question 22.
Conservation refers to:
1. Mutation
2. Protection
3. Isolation
4. Destruction
Answer:
2. Protection

Question 23.
In-situ conservation means conserving organisms in:
1. Zoo
2. Natural habitat
3. Laboratory
4. Museum
Answer:
2. Natural habitat

Question 24.
National parks are examples of:
1. Artificial conservation
2. In-situ conservation
3. Genetic conservation
4. Ex-situ conservation
Answer:
2. In-situ conservation

Question 25.
Wildlife sanctuaries are mainly meant for:
1. Hunting
2. Protection of species
3. Fanning
4. Mutation
Answer:
2. Protection of species

Question 26.
Botanical gardens are mainly used for:
1. Hunting
2. Plant conservation
3. Mutation
4. Animal conservation
Answer:
2. Plant conservation

Question 27.
Seed banks are primarily meant for storing:
1. Animals
2. Water
3. Seeds
4. Soil
Answer:
3. Seeds

Question 28.
Which among the following is a biodiversity hotspot in India?
1. Plains
2. Western Ghats
3. Himalayas only
4. Desert
Answer:
2. Western Ghats

Question 29.
Increased biodiversity improves ecosystem:
1. Mutation
2. Stability
3. Isolation
4. Instability
Answer:
2. Stability

Question 30.
Which of the following is considered an ecosystem service?
1. Oxygen production
2. Food
3. Water
4. All of these
Answer:
4. All of these

Question 31.
The Red Data Book mainly provides information about:
1. Animals only
2. Genes
3. Plants only
4. Endangered species
Answer:
4. Endangered species

Question 32.
Extinction means:
1. Growth
2. Mutation
3. Complete disappearance
4. Migration
Answer:
3. Complete disappearance

Question 33.
Which of the following is NOT an ecosystem service?
1. Pollution
2. Oxygen production
3. Pollination
4. Nutrient cycling
Answer:
1. Pollution

Question 34.
Sacred groves are examples of:
1. Migration
2. Pollution
3. Mutation
4. Conservation
Answer:
4. Conservation

Question 35.
Conservation helps in maintaining:
1. Growth only
2. Mutation
3. Isolation
4. Biodiversity
Answer:
4. Biodiversity

Question 36.
Biodiversity hotspots are regions having:
1. Low biodiversity
2. No biodiversity
3. Medium biodiversity
4. Biodiversity
Answer:
4. Biodiversity

Question 37.
Loss of biodiversity mainly affects:
1. Human life
2. Environment
3. Ecosystem stability
4. All of these
Answer:
4. All of these

Question 38.
Which among the following is a major reason for extinction?
1. Pollution
2. Habitat loss
3. Over-exploitation
4. All of these
Answer:
4. All of these

Question 39.
Which of the following is an example of ex-situ conservation?
1. Sanctuary
2. National park
3. Forest
4. Zoo
Answer:
4. Zoo

Question 40.
Species richness in a region is directly associated with:
1. Area size
2. Rainfall only
3. Mutation
4. Temperature only
Answer:
1. Area size

Question 41.
Tropical regions possess greater biodiversity because of:
1. Stable climate
2. High mutation
3. Low sunlight
4. Extreme climatic conditions
Answer:
1. Stable climate

Question 42.
On a logarithmic scale, the species-area relationship becomes:
1. Random
2. Straight line
3. Circle
4. Curve
Answer:
2. Straight line

Question 43.
Larger geographical areas generally support:
1. Same species diversity
2. Higher species diversity
3. Lower species diversity
4. No species
Answer:
2. Higher species diversity

Question 44.
Which factor contributes significantly to biodiversity loss?
1. Habitat destruction
2. Pollution
3. Over-exploitation
4. All of these
Answer:
4. All of these

Question 45.
Which of the following is an alien species?
1. Endemic species
2. Introduced species
3. Rare species
4. Native species
Answer:
2. Introduced species

Question 46.
The introduction of alien species may result in:
1. Increased biodiversity
2. Competition and extinction
3. Stability
4. Mutation
Answer:
2. Competition and extinction

Question 47.
Co-extinction refers to the extinction of:
1. One species
2. Two unrelated species
3. Interdependent species
4. Only plants
Answer:
3. Interdependent species

Question 48.
Which ecosystem exhibits the highest biodiversity?
1. Polar region
2. Desert
3. Tropical rainforest
4. Tundra
Answer:
3. Tropical rainforest

Question 49.
Biodiversity hotspots are identified based on:
1. Soil type
2. High endemism and threat
3. Climate
4. Low species richness
Answer:
2. High endemism and threat

Question 50.
India possesses how many biodiversity hotspots?
1. 6
2. 4
3. 8
4. 2
Answer:
2. 4

Question 51.
The Western Ghats are famous for:
1. Polar conditions
2. High endemism
3. Desert climate
4. Low biodiversity
Answer:
2. High endemism

Question 52.
Which of the following is included under in situ conservation?
1. Seed banks
2. National parks
3. Botanical gardens
4. Zoos
Answer:
2. National parks

Question 53.
Which of the following is an example of ex-situ conservation?
1. Forest
2. Sanctuary
3. Grassland
4. Zoo
Answer:
2. Sanctuary

Question 54.
Sacred groves are mainly preserved for:
1. Mutation
2. Biodiversity conservation
3. Isolation
4. Religious purposes only
Answer:
1. Mutation

Question 55.
The Red Data Book is mainly useful for:
1. Mutation
2. Tracking endangered species
3. Growth studies
4. Isolation
Answer:
1. Mutation

Question 56.
Which category of species is at the highest risk?
1. Common
2. Endangered
3. Stable
4. Abundant
Answer:
1. Common

Question 57.
Ecosystem services include:
1. Pollination
2. Nutrient cycling
3. Climate regulation
4. All of these
Answer:
1. Pollination

Question 58.
Which of the following is NOT a conservation method?
1. Protection
2. Awareness
3. Deforestation
4. Afforestation
Answer:
1. Protection

Question 59.
Conservation strategies primarily aim at:
1. Sustainable use
2. Protection
3. Management
4. All of these
Answer:
3. Management

Question 60.
Biodiversity loss results in:
1. Mutation
2. Growth
3. Stability
4. Imbalance
Answer:
2. Growth

Question 61.
Which of the following is an ecosystem service?
1. Soil formation
2. Oxygen production
3. Water purification
4. All of these
Answer:
3. Water purification

Question 62.
Biodiversity loss caused by habitat destruction is considered:
1. Rare cause
2. Major cause
3. Minor cause
4. No cause
Answer:
4. No cause

Question 63.
Which of the following contributes to co-extinction?
1. Parasitism
2. Mutualism
3. Interdependence
4. All of these
Answer:
1. Parasitism

Question 64.
In-situ conservation helps preserve species in:
1. Laboratories
2. Natural habitats
3. Zoos
4. All of these
Answer:
1. Laboratories

Question 65.
Biodiversity enhances ecosystems by improving:
1. Stability
2. Mutation
3. Isolation
4. Instability
Answer:
1. Stability

Question 66.
Climate change influences biodiversity by:
1. Causing extinction
2. Altering habitats
3. Changing species distribution
4. All of these
Answer:
Altering habitats

Question 67.
Genetic diversity is essential for:
1. Evolution
2. Survival
3. Adaptation
4. All of these
Answer:
2. Survival

Question 68.
Which of the following is NOT a level of biodiversity?
1. Cellular
2. Species
3. Ecosystem
4. Genetic
Answer:
4. Genetic

Question 69.
Endemic species are generally more prone to:
1. Stability
2. Extinction
3. Growth
4. Mutation
Answer:
3. Growth

Question 70.
The ultimate objective of biodiversity conservation is:
1. Mutation
2. Sustainable development
3. Isolation
4. Protection only
Answer:
2. Sustainable development

For systematic learning, students can include AP Inter 2nd Year English Grammar with Answers and Language of Advertisements in English Inter 1st Year in their daily study routine.

AP Inter 2nd Year English Language of Advertisements with Answers

Language has a powerful influence over people and their behaviour. This is especially true in the fields of marketing and advertising. The choice of language to convey specific messages with the intention of influencing people is vitally important. Advertising was initially meant to make people aware of the goods available in the market. It was as simple as announcing what you have in your store or the services you offer in your premises.

Over the years, advertising has evolved into a major industry that goes beyond informing, to persuading and influencing.

The sole aim of the language of advertisements is to attract the customers towards a product or convince a customer to buy a product. To achieve effective communication, the language of advertisement should be –

Brief and simple
Persuasive
Unambiguous
Rhetorical
Devoid of technical words

Advertisements can improve our reading skills, especially to scan for specific information. We also learn interesting phrases from advertisements. Now let’s check the following advertisements and see how far we can understand them to answer the questions that follow.

1. Study the advertisement and answer the questions that follow.

Question 1.
When is World Consumer Rights Day observed ?
Answer:
15th March.

Question 2.
How should we locate the Consumer Forum in our area ?
Answer:
Log onto www.ncdrc.nic.in.

Question 3.
Who has issued the advertisement ?
Answer:
Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution, Department of Consumer Affairs, Govt. of India.

Question 4.
What are the timings to call the National Consumer Helpline number ?
Answer:
9.30 am to 5.30 pm, Monday to Saturday.

Question 5.
What is the only phrase which is written in a language other than English ?
Answer:
Jago Grahak Jago.

2. The following flow chart shows the “preparation of jaggery.

Questions:

Question 1.
Where is Teerthankar Mahaveer University ?
Answer:
Delhi road, Moradabad, U.P., India.

Question 2.
What was the venue of the interview ?
Answer:
Committee Hall, 1st Floor, Administrative Block, TMV, Moradabad.

Question 3.
Whom should we contact for any queries ?
Answer:
HR Office.

Question 4.
For which posts were the interviews conducted ?
Answer:
Professor / Associate Professor / Assistant Professor / Lecturer.

Question 5.
What is the salary offered for these posts ?
Answer:
Salary – no constraint.

3. Study the advertisement and answer the questions that follow.

Questions:

Question 1.
What is the advertisement about ?
Answer:
It is about Electronic payment and Application system of scholarships.

Question 2.
Name one of the awards this programme has been given owing to its success rate.
Answer:

• CSI Nihilent e-Governance Award/ 2010 -11 : Award of Excellence under G2C category.
• CSI Nihilent e-Govemance Award/ 2015-16: Appreciation under sustenance category.

Question 3.
In this programme, are manual visits necessary.
Answer:
No

Question 4.
This programme is extended …………………….. to states.
Answer:
AP, Jharkhand, Karnataka, Himachal Pradesh, Tripura.

Question 5.
In which state is this already being implemented ?
Answer:
Telangana

4. Study the advertisement and answer the questions that follow.

Questions:

Question 1.
We Cover India The Best who is ‘we’ in the aboce caption ?
Answer:
LIC

Question 2.
Who has issued this advertisement ?
Answer:
LIC

Question 3.
Write antonyms of the following words :
a) Claim
b) Independence
Answer:
a) disclaim
b) dependence

Question 4.
On which occasion has the organization issued this advertisement ?
Answer:
Independence day

Question 5.
How many policyholders does this organisation have nationwide ?
Answer:
More than 30 crore policyholders.

5. Study the advertisement and answer the questions that follow.

Questions:

Question 1.
Name at least three countries that can be seen in the map.
Answer:
India, China, Pakistan, Afghanistan.

Question 2.
Which country has carried out the surgical strike ?
Answer:
India.

Question 3.
Where were the terror launch pads ?
Answer:
Terror launch pads were in range of 2 to 3 km from LOC.

Question 4.
How many terror launch pads were targeted ?
Answer:
Five states.

Question 5.
At what time did the surgical strike take place ?
Answer:
Midnight to 4.30 a.m.

6. Study the advertisement and answer the questions that follow.

Questions:

Question 1.
Who is the national leader that can be seen in the advertisement ?
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi

Question 2.
Who has issued the advertisement ?
Answer:
Ministry of Rural Development.

Question 3.
Write the antonym of rural.
Answer:
Urban.

Question 4.
Write the verb form of ‘development’.
Answer:
Develop (v).

Question 5.
What is being guaranteed in the advertisement ?
Answer:
Rural employment.

7. Study the advertisement and answer the questions that follow.

Questions:

Question 1.
What is the advertisement about ?
Answer:
Joining hands with Railways in Cleanliness Drive.

Question 2.
Who has issued this advertisement ?
Answer:
Indian Railways.

Question 3.
When was the Cleanliness drive conducted ?
Answer:
22nd September, 2018.

Question 4.
Who are to be contacted for our shramdaan ?
Answer:
Station director / Station manager of the nearest railway station.

Question 5.
Write the noun form of ‘charitable’.
Answer:
Charity.

8. Study the advertisement and answer the questions that follow.

Questions:

Question 1.
What is referred to as ‘God’s own country ?
Answer:
Kerala

Question 2.
What is an egret ?
a) a kind of bird
b) a kind of tree
c) a kind of boat
Answer:
a) a kind of bird

Question 3.
Pick the antonym for the word ‘still’ from the above advertisement.
Answer:
Swaying

Question 4.
Name the palms that are seen in this picture.
Answer:
Coconut palms.

Question 5.
‘Rubbing shoulders’ means
a) rubbing shoulders with others
b) keep company with
c) help others by holding shoulders.
Answer:
b) keep company with

9. Study the advertisement and answer the questions that follow.

Questions:

Question 1.
What is the advertisement about ?
Answer:
Sports goods exports from India.

Question 2.
What is the source of the information ?
Answer:
Ministry of Commerce.

Question 3.
How much growth is expected in 2018-19 ?
Answer:
8 % growth.

Question 4.
What is the challenge being faced by India in exporting sports goods ?
Answer:
Rising cost of raw materials are making Indian products more expensive than Chinese goods.

Question 5.
Meerut’s share in the export of sports goods is more than that of Jalandhar. State true or false.
Answer:
True.

10. Study the advertisement and answer the questions that follow.

Questions:

Question 1.
Name at least two states participating in the dance festival.
Answer:
Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh. (Any two options)

Question 2.
Who are organising the dance festival ?
Answer:
South Central Zone Cultural Centre, Ministry of Cultural, Govt. Of India in association with Innovative film city, Bangalore (Karnataka).

Question 3.
Write the noun form of ‘tribal’.
Answer:
Tribe.

Question 4.
Where was this festival organised ?
Answer:
Bangalore (Karnataka).

Question 5.
What is the tribal folk dance of Andhra Pradesh ?
Answer:
Tappetagallu nritya.

11. Study the advertisement and answer the questions that follow.

Questions:

Question 1.
What are the sports mentioned in the advertisement ?
Answer:
Fencing, Judo, Gymnastics.

Question 2.
What has Indiasudar planned to do ?
Answer:
Indiasudar has planned with the help of sports coaches to nurture the interested students from Govt, and Govt. Aided Schools located in Karur Dt. of Tamilnadu.

Question 3.
Monthly fee for the training programme is 15,000. State true or false.
Answer:
False.

Question 4.
Find out the synonym of ‘to encourage’ from the advertisement.
Answer:
Nurture.

Question 5.
How many students will be selected for the training programme per year ?
Answer:
40 students.

12. Study the advertisement and answer the questions that follow.

Questions:

Question 1.
Mention any two offensive acts of ragging.
Answer:
Disorderly behaviour or treatment with fellow student by words spoken or written / or by an act which has effect of teasing / treating and handling with rudeness with any oth,er students / indulging in rowdy or indecent activities.

Question 2.
Who has defined ragging in the above advertisement ?
Answer:
The Honourable Supreme Court of India.

Question 3.
Pickout the word that means encourage from the passage.
Answer:
Abetment.

Question 4.
Write verb forms of the following words.
a) Prohibition
b) apprehension
Answer:
a) Prohibit
b) Apprehend.

Question 5.
Write down any two punishments for students involved directly or indirectly in ragging.
Answer:

1. Cancellation of admission
2. Suspension from classes.

13. Study the advertisement and answer the questions that follow.

Questions:

Question 1.
How many people were killed in road accidents in 2017 according to the advertisement ?
Answer:
107 killed inroad accidents in 2017.

Question 2.
Who were exempted from wearing a helmet ?
Answer:
Sikh women.

Question 3.
What are we asked to ‘speak up’ about ?
Answer:
The police should hold more awareness drives before challanging women for not wearing helmets.

Question 4.
Our views that share ‘we’ may be published in …………
Answer:
The Times of India.

Question 5.
Write a synonym of ‘awareness’.
Answer:
Consciousness / understanding / realization.

14. Study the advertisement and answer the questions that follow.

Questions:

Question 1.
Who issued the advertisement ?
Answer:
West Bengal Telecom.

Question 2.
Who is India’s largest network provider ?
Answer:
BSNL.

Question 3.
What is the motto of BSNL ?
Answer:
Connecting India faster.

Question 4.
Name two more networks mentioned in the advertisement.
Answer:
Reliance and Tata Docomo.

Question 5.
What is the customer care number if you call from a BSNL network ?
Answer:
1503.

15. Study the advertisement and answer the questions that follow.

Questions:

Question 1.
What were the applications invited for ?
Answer:
Applications are invited for National Energy Conservation Award 2018 for exceptional achievement in energy efficiency.

Question 2.
What is the last date for the receipt of applications ?
Answer:
15th October, 2018.

Question 3.
How can we find the eligibility criteria ?
Answer:
Can be downloaded from www.beeindia.gov.in.

Question 4.
Name at least two sectors that can apply for this award.
Answer:
Industry sector / Transport sector / Building sector (any two of these).

Question 5.
Hotels and hospitals belong to ……………… sector.
Answer:
Building sector.

16. Study the advertisement and answer the questions that follow.

Question 1.
What is the advertisement about ?
Answer:
It is an awareness programme about wearing seat belts.

Question 2.
Who has issued the advertisement ?
Answer:
World Health Organization.

Question 3.
How many countries have good seat belt laws ?
Answer:
105.

Question 4.
How much percent of risk of fatal injury will be reduced by wearing seat belts for rear seat occupants ?
Answer:
upto 75%.

Question 5.
What does the green colour in the map indicate ?
Answer:
Seat belt law applies to all occupants.

17. Study the advertisement, and answer the questions that follow.

Questions:

Question 1.
What is the source of the information of the number of students from India studying abroad ?
Answer:
UNESCO Institute for Statistics (2012) Global Education Digest 2012, Montreal Quebec UNESCO Institute for statistics.

Question 2.
Did the number of Indian students studying in undergraduate courses increase or decrease from 2010 to 2012 ?
Answer:
Decreased / a decrease of 7%.

Question 3.
What is the annual cost of an undergraduate course in the United States ?
Answer:
$ 45k – 60k.

Question 4.
How many Indian students are studying in Australia ?
Answer:
20429.

Question 5.
In which country are the least number of Indian students studying ?
Answer:
Canada.

18. Study the advertisement, and answer the questions that follow.

Questions:

Question 1.
Where should we cross the road ?
Answer:
At Zebra crossing.

Question 2.
Why should we call the National Consumer Help Line according to the advertisement ?
Answer:
For any help / clarification.

Question 3.
What is the toll free number for the National Consumer Help Line ?
Answer:
1800-11-4000.

Question 4.
What should we do before we assert our right ?
Answer:
We should be responsible to follow rules / It’s our responsibility to follow rules.

Question 5.
Write the noun form of ‘assert’.
Answer:
Assertion.

19. Study the advertisement and answer the questions that follow.

Questions:

Question 1.
What is UCC ?
Answer:
Unsolicited Commercial Communication.

Question 2.
How can we get rid of UCC ?
Answer:
With a mobile app “TRAI DND 2.0”.

Question 3.
Who has issued the advertisement ?
Answer:
Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI).

Question 4.
Mention two ways to manage UCC through ‘TRAI DND 2.0’.
Answer:

1. Put your mobile number on the DND (do not disturb) register.
2. Register DND preferences.

Question 5.
What does SMS stand for ?
a) Simple mobile service
b) Short message service
c) Small message service.
Answer:
b) Short message service.

20. Study the advertisement and answer the questions that follow.

Questions:

Question 1.
What is RTI ?
Answer:
Right to Information.

Question 2.
How does RTI empower us ?
Answer:
It empowers us to seek information.

Question 3.
How should we apply to find some information of a certain department ?
Answer:
Just file the application with the Public Information Officer (PIO) of the concerned department along with fee / or submit it through the post office.

Question 4.
How should we pay the application fee ?
Answer:
Application fee of Rs. 10/- through cash / Demand Draft / Banker’s Cheque.

Question 5.
What can block the road to corruption ?
Answer:
Access to Information.

21. Study the advertisement and answer the questions that follow.

Questions:

Question 1.
Why should we read food labels ?
Answer:
We should read food labels for safe and healthy choices.

Question 2.
What is fssai ?
Answer:
Food Safety and Standards Authority of India.

Question 3.
What should we beware of ?
Answer:
We are asked to beware of artificially ripened fruits.

Question 4.
Pick the antonym of ‘naturally’ from the advertisement.
Answer:
Artificially

Question 5.
Find out a word in the advertisement that is synonym to ‘alert’.
Answer:
Beware.

22. Study the advertisement and answer the questions that follow.

Questions:

Question 1.
What is Aadhaar ?
Answer:
A 12 digit Unique Identification Number issued by the Govt, of India.

Question 2.
State two benefits of Aadhaar.
Answer:

1. Aadhaar is valid all over India as a Proof of Identity (POI) and Proof of Address (POA).
2. It can help to open a bank account, get a mobile connection and avail LPG connection.

Question 3.
Aadhaar is a proof of identity for Indians. State true or false.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
Who has issued the advertisement ?
Answer:
Unique Identification Authority of India, Planning Commission, Govt. of India.

Question 5.
Where can we enroll for Aadhaar ?
Answer:
Anywhere in India.

23. Study the advertisement and answer the questions that anyone ?

Questions:

Question 1.
What information that is not to be shared with everyone ?
Answer:
Do not share the UPI details with anyone.

Question 2.
What are the debit card details that we should not share with anyone ?
Answer:
Card number, expiry date and cw number.

Question 3.
What does OTP stand for ?
Answer:
one time password.

Question 4.
Pick the word from the passage that is synonymous to ‘corrupt / cheating’.
Answer:
fraudulent.

Question 5.
Write the noun form of ‘fraudulent’.
Answer:
fraud.

24. Study the advertisement and answer the questions that follow.

Questions:

Question 1.
When do we celebrate World Energy Conservation Day every year ?
Answer:
Dec 14th

Question 2.
How many types of sources of energy are shown in the advertisement ?
Answer:
Two types

Question 3.
Solar energy is a type of ……………………… source of energy.
Answer:
Non-conventional

Question 4.
Find out the word which is synonymous to ‘save’.
Answer:
Conservation

Question 5.
Give two examples of conventional sources of energy.
Answer:
Coal / Petroleum / Natural gas.

25. Study the advertisement and answer the questions that follow.

Question 1.
What is the advertisement about ?
Answer:
About a new frame work for Television Sector introduced by TRAI.

Question 2.
Write down two major benefits of the new frame work of India.
Answer:
a) Subscriber has complete freedom to select TV channels or bouquets.
b) Pay only for those channels that you want to view.

Question 3.
What is the TRAI website ?
Answer:
www.trai.gov.in.

Question 4.
Where can we find ‘consumer information ?
Answer:
On Consumer Information TV channel.

Question 5.
Write a synonym of’disruption’.
Answer:
Disturbance, upset, confusion, interruption, suspension.

For systematic learning, students can include AP Inter 2nd Year English Grammar with Answers and Interpretation of Non-Verbal Information in English Inter 1st Year in their daily study routine.

AP Inter 2nd Year English Interpretation of Non-Verbal Information with Answers

Verbal forms are linguistic expressions which involve oral or written words in speeches or writings.
Ex: Lectures, Seminars, Letter writings, E-mails etc.,

Non-Verbal Information refers to data or messages conveyed without words, usually through visuals or symbolic representations. It is a critical skill in academics, competitive exams, and professional life. Examples: Charts, Graphs, Tables, Diagrams, Pictures, Symbols, Maps, Flowcharts, Infographics.

Non-verbal representation is used to understand when the basic information is involved with

1. Various categories and related sub-categories
2. An organisational hierarchy
3. Directional steps of a process.

Commonly used non-verbal forms :

1. Table: in table format, data is arranged systematically in columns and rows for easy comparision.
Ex 1: The price list of various commodities with their discounts are exhibited in the table format, in a super market.
Ex 2: The marks, percentage, grade and ranks of top 10 students of a class can be represented in a table format.

2. Pie-chart : A Pie-chart is a circle which is divided into various segments. Each segment represents a certain fraction or percentage of the whole 360 degrees.
Ex: The ‘budget allocations’ are generally depicted in terms of pie-chart.

3. Flow Chart: Flow chart depicts various ‘sequential and directional steps’ in a process.
Ex : Usually computer programs are written in flow chart format.

4. Bar Graph : Bar Graph is used to represent the data with vertical bars of varying heights.
Ex 1: The runs per over in a T-20 cricket match are depicted vividly by means of a bar graph.
Ex 2: The number of bikes sold by a company over a period of five years can be shown by means of a bar graph.

5. Tree Diagram: A tree diagram starts with one item and branches into two or more and so on. It is used to represent

• classification of information into categories and sub-categories
• organisational hierarchy.

Ex : Classification of number system, classification of spices, hierarchial designations of the department of police, family member relation chart etc.

6. Flowchart : Flow chart depicts various ‘sequential and directional steps’ in a process.
Ex : Usually computer programs are written in flow chart format.

7. Maps : Maps represent geographic or spatial information.
Ex : Political map, Route map, Resource Distribution.

8. Pictures / Cartoons / Posters : They convey messages, opinions, or social issues.
Ex : Environmental awareness posters, Political cartoons.

9. Symbols / Icons : They represent concepts in a simple, universal way.
Ex : Traffic signs, Chemical symbols, Infographics.

10. Time lines: They represent chronology or plot of a story in a simple way.
Ex : Historical Events, Outlines of Plays or Novels.

Pie-chart – 1

Reasons for Road Accidents in India (2023-2024)
Data representation for Road Safety Awareness

Questions:

Question 1.
What is the major cause of road accidents in India according to the report?
Answer:
The major cause is Over-speeding, which accounts for 70 % of all road accidents.

Question 2.
Name two human factors that contribute to road accidents other than speeding.
Answer:
Two other human factors are Distracted driving (7 %) and Failure to follow traffic rules (6 %). (Driving under influence at 5 % is also a human factor).

Question 3.
What percentage of road accidents are caused by bad road conditions?
Answer:
5 % of road accidents are caused by bad road conditions.

Question 4.
What is the purpose of this data representation?
Answer:
The purpose is for Road Safety Awareness, as mentioned in the “Data representation” subtitle.

Question 5.
What is the source of information?
Answer:
The source is the Ministry of Road Transport & Highways (MoRTH) and the Save Life Foundation Report 2024.

Pie Chart – 2

Major cause of DRUG ABUSE Among youth in India

Questions:

Question 1.
Which factor is shown as the leading cause of drug abuse among youth in India?
Answer:
The leading cause is Peer Influence / Social Pressure, which accounts for 20% of the cases.

Question 2.
What is the pie chart about?
Answer:
The pie chart represents the Major Causes of Drug Abuse Among Youth in India.

Question 3.
What percentage of drug abuse is linked to Psychological Stress or Mental Health?
Answer:
15% of drug abuse is linked to Psychological Stress / Mental Health.

Question 4.
What is the source of this information?
Answer:
The source is the National Survey on Substance Use in India, 2019; ICMR; LIIP; LWW, 2024-2025.

Question 5.
What is the percentage of Media / Glamorization as a cause?
Answer:
The percentage for Media / Glamorization is 5%.

Tree Diagram – 1

Questions:

Question 1.
What are some career options available for students who choose the MPC group?
Answer:
Career options for MPC students include:

Engineering & Technology: B.Tech in fields like CSE, AI, DS, ECE, EEE, Mech, and Civil.
Pure Sciences: B.Sc (Maths / Physics / Chemistry / CS) Integrated M.Sc.
Defence & Govt. Jobs: NDA, Indian Navy, and Air Force.

Question 2.
Which medical-related courses can BiPC students pursue after Intermediate?
Answer:
Medical and health-related courses for BiPC students include MBBS; BDS, BAMS / BHMS / BNYS, B.Pharmacy / Pharm.D, B.Sc Nursing, Physiotherapy, Medical Lab Technology, and ANM / GNM.

Question 3.
What professional courses are available for CEC students?
Answer:
The professional courses available for CEC students are CA (Chartered Accountancy), CMA (Cost and Management Accountancy), and CS (Company Secretary).

Question 4.
What are the courses available for HEC?
Answer:
Students in the HEC group can pursue Bachelor of Arts (BA) degrees in subjects such as History, Economics, Political Science, Sociology, Psychology, Special English, Special Telugu, and Computers.

Question 5.
State TRUE or FALSE: Only Students from the HEC group can apply for SSC/RRB jobs.
Answer:
FALSE. The chart categorizes “Govt. Job Opportunities” (like SSC/RRB) under a section that applies broadly to various streams, not just HEC.

Tree Diagram – 2

Questions:

Question 1.
Which figure of speech uses words that imitate sounds?
Answer:
Onomatopoeia is the figure of speech that uses words imitating sounds.

Question 2.
What is Irony?
Answer:
Irony is saying the opposite of what is meant (e.g., “A fire station burns down”).

Question 3.
Give an example for ‘Simile’?
Answer:
An example of a Simile provided in the chart is: “Her smile was as bright as the sun.”

Question 4.
Which figure of speech gives human qualities to non-living things?
Answer:
Personification is the figure of speech that gives human qualities to non-human or non- living things.

Question 5.
Identify the figure of speech in this sentence “a boiled egg every morning is hard to beat.”
Answer:
This is a Pun, which is a play on words with double meanings.

Table – 1

Questions:

Question 1.
Which period of English literature lasted from 450 to 1066?
Answer:
The Old English (Anglo-Saxon Age).

Question 2.
Who wrote The Canterbury Tales?
Answer:
Geoffrey Chaucer

Question 3.
Who compiled “Dictionary of the English Language”?
Answer:
Samuel Johnson.

Question 4.
State TRUE or FALSE: The Restoration Period is best known for writers like John Dryden and Aphra Behn.
Answer:
TRUE.

Question 5.
What is the best work by T.S. Eliot?
Answer:
The Waste Land.

Table – 2

Punctuation Marks Uses & Examples:

Questions:

Question 1.
Which punctuation mark is used to end a statement?
Answer:
The Full Stop / Period.

Question 2.
Which punctuation mark is used to show possession or contractions?
Answer:
The Apostrophe.

Question 3.
Which punctuation mark is used to introduce a list or explanation?
Answer:
The Colon.

Question 4.
State TRUE or FALSE: The exclamation mark (!) shows strong feelings or Surprise.
Answer:
TRUE. (According to the usage column for Exclamation Mark).

Question 5.
Which punctuation mark is used to separate items in a list?
Answer:
The Comma.

Bar Graph – 1

Questions:

Question 1.
What does the bar graph show?
Answer:
The bar graph shows the Time Spent by Indians on Social Media in a Month.

Question 2.
Which social media app do Indians spend the most time on?
Answer:
Indians spend the most time on Youtube (30 hours per month).

Question 3.
How many hours per month are spent on Facebook?
Answer:
21 hours per month are spent on Facebook.

Question 4.
Which two social media apps have the least usage time?
Answer:
Telegram (2 hours) and Pinterest (1 hour) have the least usage time.

Question 5.
How many social media apps are shown in the bar graph?
Answer:
There are 8 social media apps shown in the bar graph (Youtube, Facebook, Instagram, Whatsapp, X(Twitter), Snapchat, Telegram, and Pinterest).

Bar Graph – 2

Questions:

Question 1.
Which year did India win its first Women’s Cricket World Cup?
Answer:
India won its first ICC Cricket World Cup (ODI) (Women) in 2025.

Question 2.
How many times has the Indian women’s team won the Women’s Asia Cup?
Answer:
The Indian women’s team has won the Asia Cup 7 times (in 2004, 2005, 2006, 2008, 2012, 2016, and 2022).

Question 3.
In which years-did India win the ICC Cricket World Cup (ODI)?
Answer:
India won the ICC Cricket World Cup (ODI) in 1983 and 2011.

Question 4.
How many times has India won the ICC Cricket World Cup (T20)?
Answer:
India has won the ICC Cricket World Cup (T20) 3 times (in 2007, 2024, and 2026).

Question 5.
State TRUE or FALSE: India has won the ICC Champions Trophy twice.
Answer:
FALSE. (The chart shows India has won the ICC Champions Trophy 3 times: in2002,2013, and2025).

Flow Chart – 1

Questions:

Question 1.
How many steps are involved before we get the final product of rice?
Answer:
There are 10 steps involved before reaching the final product (starting from “Main Field Preparation” and ending with “Husking”).

Question 2.
In which step are the grains separated from the stalks?
Answer:
This happens during the Threshing step.

Question 3.
What is removed to get brown rice?
Answer:
The Outer husk is removed during the Husking stage to produce brown rice.

Question 4.
In which step are the young seedlings carefully uprooted and planted in the main field?
Answer:
This occurs during the Transplantation step.

Question 5.
What is winnowing?
Answer:
Winnowing is the process where the husk and chaff are removed from the grains.

Flow Chart – 2

Questions:

Question 1.
Which ancient script is considered the earliest form in the evolution of the modem English alphabet shown in the chart?
Answer:
The Proto-Sinaitic (1750 BC) script.

Question 2.
From which alphabet did the Archaic Greek letters develop?
Answer:
They developed from the Phoenician (1000 BC) alphabet.

Question 3.
What is the Archaic Greek equivalent of the Phoenician letter “Aleph”?
Answer:
Alpha.

Question 4.
In which stage (step) did the letters take the recognizable Roman forms A, B, C, D, E?
Answer:
In the final stage, labeled Roman (1 CE).

Question 5.
What is the name of the Phoenician letter that evolved into the English letter ‘B’?
Answer:
Beth.

Timeline – 1

Questions:

Question 1.
When was the first endeavour for the freedom struggle initiated?
Answer:
The first endeavor shown is the Sepoy Mutiny in 1857.

Question 2.
When did India get freedom?
Answer:
India achieved Independence in 1947.

Question 3.
In which year did the Quit India .Movement take place?
Answer:
The Quit India Movement took place in August 1942.

Question 4.
Who led the Salt March?
Answer:
The image depicts Mahatma Gandhi leading the Salt March.

Question 5.
What happened in 1919?
Answer:
The Jallianwala Bagh Massacre occurred on April 13, 1919.

Time Line – 2

Questions:

Question 1.
Who wrote the Greek Epic Poem “The Odyssey”?
Answer:
The poem was written by Homer.

Question 2.
State TRUE or FALSE: “Odysseus begin his journey from Troy.”
Answer:
TRUE. The chart indicates that Odysseus sailed home from Troy in step 1.

Question 3.
What did Odysseus’ men do in the land of the Lotus-Eaters?
Answer:
His men forgot home when they were on Lotus Island.

Question 4.
Who trapped Odysseus and his men in a cave?
Answer:
A giant Cyclops trapped them in a cave.

Question 5.
Who turned Odysseus’ men into pigs?
Answer:
The Witch Circle magically turned his men into pigs.

Time Line – 3

Questions:

Question 1.
Who wrote Gulliver’s Travels?
Answer:
The novel was written by Jonathan Swift.

Question 2.
Where do Giants live?
Answer:
Giants live in Brobdingnag.

Question 3.
What is the name of the flying island?
Answer:
The flying island is named Laputa.

Question 4.
Who taught kindness and truth to Gulliver?
Answer:
Wise horses taught him kindness and truth.

Question 5.
Who tied Gulliver down?
Answer:
Tiny Lilliputians tied him down.

Time Line – 4

Questions:

Question 1.
Who wrote Julius Caesar?
Answer:
The play was written by William Shakespeare.

Question 2.
Who persuaded Brutus to assassinate Caesar?
Answer:
Cassius persuaded Brutus by convincing him that Caesar threatened Rome.

Question 3.
Who delivered the funeral speech?
Answer:
Mark Antony delivered the funeral speech that swayed the crowd.

Question 4.
What happened to Brutus in the civil war?
Answer:
Brutus was defeated in the Civil War.

Question 5.
On which day was Caesar assassinated?
Answer:
Caesar was assassinated on the Ides of March.

Safety Road

Question 1.
What are these symbols?
Answer:
These are Mandatory Road Signs.

Question 2.
Who issued these symbols?
Answer:
They were issued by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways, Government of India.

Question 3.
What does the symbol represent?
Answer:
This symbol represents Give way.

Question 4.
What is the source of the information?
Answer:
The source is the Book on Road Safety Signage and signs.

Question 5.
What does the symbol represent?
Answer:
This symbol represents Stop.

Reviewing AP Inter 2nd Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 8 Organisms and Populations Questions and Answers can help students prepare confidently for exams.

AP Inter 2nd Year Zoology 8th Lesson Organisms and Populations Questions and Answers

IV. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define carrying capacity.
Answer:
Carrying capacity (K) is the maximum number of individuals of a particular species that a habitat can sustainably support with the resources available.

Question 2.
What is commensalism? Give one example.
Answer:

1. Commensalism is an interaction between two different species in which one species benefits while the other remains neither benefited nor harmed.
2. Example: An orchid growing on a mango tree. The orchid receives physical support, whereas the mango tree is unaffected.

Question 3.
Define mortality.
Answer:

1. Mortality is the number of deaths occurring in a population during a specified period.
2. It is one of the major factors, along with emigration, that contributes to a decrease in population density.

Question 4.
Give one example of mutualism.
Answer:
Lichen (Alga + Fungus) is a classic example of mutualism,

• The alga prepares food through photosynthesis.
• The fungus provides water, minerals, shelter, and protection.

Question 5.
Write the Verhulst-Pearl Logistic Growth equation.
Answer:
Verhulst-Pearl Logistic Growth Equation : dN/dt = rN(l – N/K)
Where:

• N = Population size
• r = Intrinsic rate of natural increase
• K = Carrying capacity
• dN/dt = Rate of population growth

V. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Differentiate between Exponential and Logistic Growth.
Answer:

Question 4.
Explain the term “Age Pyramid” and its significance.
Answer:
Age Pyramid:
1. An age pyramid is a graphical representation showing the age composition of a population.
2. It displays the percentage of individuals belonging to different age groups:

• Pre-reproductive,
• Reproductive,
• Post-reproductive.

3. It generally represents the distribution of both males and females within a population.
Types of Age Pyramids :

Expanding (Triangular) Pyramid:

1. Contains a larger proportion of young individuals.
2. Indicates a growing population.

Stable (Bell-shaped) Pyramid :

1. Shows nearly equal proportions of different age groups.
2. Represents a stable population.

iii) Declining (Urn-shaped) Pyramid:

1. Has a greater proportion of older individuals.
2. Indicates a declining population.

Significance:

• Helps predict future trends in population growth.
• Indicates whether a population is expanding, stable, or declining.
• Assists in planning resources, healthcare, and developmental programmes.
• Provides information about the age structure and reproductive potential of a population.

Question 5.
Why is competition considered a negative interaction?
Answer:
Competition is regarded as a negative interaction because both participating species are adversely affected while competing for the same limited resources.

• Competition for Resources: Organisms compete for essential resources such as food, water, nutrients, space, and light, reducing the availability of these resources for both species.
• Reduced Fitness: Competition lowers the growth, survival, and reproductive success (fitness) of one or both competing species.
• Interference Competition: Even when resources are present, the presence of one species may interfere with the feeding, growth, or reproduction of another, causing negative effects.
• Competitive Exclusion: According to Gause’s Competitive Exclusion Principle, two species competing for the same limiting resource cannot coexist indefinitely. Eventually, the superior competitor excludes or eliminates the weaker one.

Question 6.
What is Competitive Release? Give an example where a species showed wider distribution in the absence of a competing species.
Answer:

1. Competitive release is the phenomenon in which a species expands its population size or geographical distribution after the removal of a stronger competing species.
2. Under normal conditions, a dominant competitor restricts the growth and spread of another species by competing for common resources such as food, shelter, or space.
3. Once the superior competitor is absent, the weaker species gains access to more resources and habitat, allowing it to increase in number and occupy a wider area.

Example: (Connell’s Barnacle Experiment)

• The barnacle Balanus is a stronger competitor and occupies most of the intertidal region.
• It limits the distribution of the smaller barnacle Chthamalus to a narrow zone.
• When Balanus is removed, Chthamalus spreads into the vacant area and occupies a much larger portion of the shore, demonstrating competitive release.

Question 7.
Explain Gause’s Competitive Exclusion Principle with a suitable natural example from nature.
Answer:

1. Gause’s Competitive Exclusion Principle states that two closely related species competing for the same limited resources cannot coexist indefinitely in the same habitat.
2. When two species depend on identiçal resources such as food, water, or space, the better competitor utilizes the resources more efficiently, while the weaker species becomes disadvantaged.
3. Over time, the weaker species is either eliminated from the habitat or forced to migrate, as both species cannot permanently occupy the same ecological niche.

• In the Galapagos Islands, the Pinta Island tortoise was originally the major grazing herbivore.
• Later, goats were introduced, and they competed with the tortoises for the same vegetation.
• Since goats grazed more efficiently, they outcompeted the tortoises for food resources.
• As a result, the tortoise population declined drastically and eventually became extinct on the island, illustrating the principle of competitive exclusion.

VI. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Give an account of various types of interactions among the animal species with suitable examples.
Answer:
In nature, plants, animals, and microorganisms interact with one another to form biological communities. These interspecific interactions may be beneficial (+), harmful (-), or neutral (0) depending on their effect on the participating species.

1.Mutualism (+/ +):

• Mutualism is an interaction in which both species benefit.
• These associations are often essential for the survival, growth, and reproduction of the organisms involved.

Examples:

1. Lichen: The alga prepares food through photosynthesis, while the fungus provides shelter, water, and minerals.
2. Mycorrhiza: Fungi help plant roots absorb water and minerals, while plants supply carbohydrates to the fungi.
3. Fig tree and fig wasp: Both organisms depend on each other for successful reproduction.

Mutualism improves the survival and reproductive success of both species.

2. Competition (-/-):

• Competition occurs when two species utilize the same limited resources, causing both to be negatively affected.
• Resources involved may include food, water, light, nutrients, or living space.

Examples:.

1. Flamingos and fishes competing for zooplankton.
2. Balanus (strong competitor) restricting the distribution of Chthamalus.
3. Goats competing with Galapagos tortoises for vegetation.

• Some organisms reduce competition through resource partitioning, where they use different resources or exploit them at different times.
• Competition influences the growth, survival, and geographical distribution of species.

3. Predation (+ / -):
In predation, one organism (predator) captures, kills, and feeds on another organism (prey).

Examples:

1. Tiger hunting deer.
2. Sparrow feeding on seeds.
3. Sea star Pisaster preying on mussels.

• Predators regulate prey populations and help prevent overpopulation.
  
• Prey species develop defensive adaptations such as camouflage, mimicry, toxins, or protective structures.
• Predation contributes to ecological balance and maintains species diversity.

4. Parasitism (+ / -):

• In parasitism, the parasite benefits, whereas the host is harmed.
• Parasites obtain food and shelter by living on or inside the host.

Examples:

1. Ectoparasites: Lice, ticks.
2. Endoparasites: Liver fluke, Plasmodium.
3. Brood parasitism: Asian koel laying eggs in the nest of a house crow.

The host is weakened but usually not killed immediately, allowing the parasite to survive.

5. Commensalism (+/ O):
In commensalism, one organism benefits while the other is neither helped nor harmed.

Examples:

1. Orchid growing on a mango tree for physical support.
2. Cattle egrets feeding on insects disturbed by grazing cattle.
3. Clownfish obtaining protection among the tentacles of sea anemones.

This interaction benefits only one species without affecting the other.

6. Amensalism (- / 0):

• Amensalism is an interaction where onç species is harmed, while the other remains unaffected.
• It usually occurs when one organišm inhibits the growth or survival of another without gaining any benefit.
• Although less common than other interactions. amensalism plays an important role in maintaining ecological balance.

Question 2.
Write an essay on population growth models.
Answer:
Population size and population density are not fixed; they vary over time due to several factors such as food availability, climatic conditions, competition, and predation. To explain these variations, ecologists have developed population growth models, mainly the exponential growth model and the logistic growth model.

These models help in understanding population dynamics, wildlife conservation, and resource management.
1. Exponential Growth Model (J-shaped Curve): The exponential growth model explains how a population grows under ideal environmental conditions, where resources are available without limitation. Under such favourable conditions, organisms reproduce at their highest biological capacity, resulting in a rapid rise in population size.

Exponential Growth Equation:dN/dt = rN
Where:

• N = Population size .
• t=Tinie E
• dN/dt = Rate of change of population with respect to time
• r = Intrinsic rate of natural increase

When the population size is plotted against time, it produces a J-shaped growth curve, indicating rapid and uninterrupted population growth. The population at any given time can also be represented by: N_t = N₀e^rt
Where: N_t = Population size at time t; N₀ = Initial population size e = Base of the natural logarithm (≈ 2.718); r = Growth rate; t = Time

However, exponential growth is seldom observed in nature because unlimited resources are rarely available. It generally occurs only for a short duration, such as when a species colonizes a new habitat

2. Logistic Growth Model (S-shaped Curve): In natural environments, resources are limited, so a population cannot continue growing forever. As the population increases, competition for available resources becomes more intense, causing the growth rate to decline.

Eventually, the population reaches a maximum sustainable limit known as the carrying capacity (K), which represents the largest number of individuals that the environment can support

Logistic Growth Equation: dN/dt = rN(1 -N/K)

Where: N = Population size; t = Time; r = Intrinsic rate of natural increase
K = Carrying capacity (maximum population that the environment can sustain);
(1-N/K) = Environmental resistance factor

When the population size (N) is small, the population grows rapidly. As N gradually approaches the carrying capacity (K), the growth rate slows down and finally becomes zero when N = K.
This model produces an S-shaped (sigmoid) growth curve consisting of three distinct phases:

• Lag Phase: Initial stage with slow population growth. ,
• Log Phase: Period of rapid population growth.
• Stationary Phase: Growth levels off as the population reaches the carrying capacity.

The logistic growth model is regarded as a more realistic representation of population growth under natural environmental conditions.

I. Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which of the following is correct example of a commensalism interaction?
1. Tiger and Deer
2. Orchid growing on mango tree
3. Orchid flower and Bee
4. Algae and fungi in a lichen
Answer:
2. Orchid growing on mango tree

Question 2.
The carrying capacity of population is represented by
1. Birth rate
2. Death rate
3. K
4. R
Answer:
3. K

Question 3.
Natality refers to
1. Number of deaths per unit time
2. The number of births per unit time
3. Number of immigrants
4. Number of emigrants
Answer:
2. The number of births per unit time

Question 4.
Which interaction harms both species?
1. Mutualism
2. Amensalism
3. Competition
4. Predation
Answer:
3. Competition

Question 5.
The logistic growth equation is
1. dN/dt = Rn
2. dN/dt = rN(K – N)/K
3. dN/dt = K – N
4. dN/dt = rN
Answer:
2. dN/dt = rN(K – N)/K

Question 6.
The process of migration from one habitat to another for breeding is called :
1. Immigration
2. Emigration
3. Natality
4. Seasonal migration
Answer:
4. Seasonal migration

Question 7.
In which type inter species interaction, result is+/0?
1. Parasitism
2. Commensalism
3. Mutualism
4. Amensalism
Answer:
2. Commensalism

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. The intrinsic rate of natural increase is denoted by …………………….. .
Answer:
r

2. In predation, one organism is benefited and the other is …………………….. .
Answer:
harmed

3. The interaction between algae and fungi in lichen is ………………………… .
Answer:
Mutualism

4. Removal of predators from an ecosystem can lead to in ……………………….. of prey population.
Answer:
over population

5. ………………………….. is the study of relationships of organisms with their environment.
Answer:
Ecology

6. The population growth curve with an S-shape is called ………………………. growth curve.
Answer:
Logistic

III. One Word Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is the term used for number of individuals per unit area?
Answer:
Density

Question 2.
In which biological interspecies relationship where both species are in benefit?
Answer:
Mutualism

Question 3.
In what type of biological relationship one organism that lives inside another?
Answer:
Endoparasite

Question 4.
Name the term used for “The gradual change in population size over time”.
Answer:
Population growth

Question 5.
What is the process known as when an organism is transferred from its natural habitat to a different one?
Answer:
Emigration

Question 6.
What does the term ‘r’ in population growth represent?
Answer:
Intrinsic rate of natural increase

Objective Questions

Question 1.
Ecology mainly deals with the relationship between organisms and their ………………….. .
1. Tissues
2. Environment
3. Cells
4. Genes
Answer:
2. Environment

Question 2.
The natural place where an organism lives is known as its:
1. Niche
2. Community
3. Habitat
4. Population
Answer:
3. Habitat

Question 3.
Individuals of the same species occupying a defined area together form a:
1. Habitat
2. Population
3. Ecosystem
4. Community
Answer:
2. Population

Question 4.
Which of the following is considered an abiotic factor?
1. Animals
2. Microbes
3. Temperature
4. Plants
Answer:
3. Temperature

Question 5.
Which among the following is a biotic factor?
1. Soil
2. Light
3. Water
4. Animals
Answer:
4. Animals

Question 6.
Temperature mainly influences organisms by affecting:
1. Distribution
2. Growth
3. Metabolism
4. All of these
Answer:
4. All of these

Question 7.
Organisms capable of maintaining a constant body temperature are called:
1. Cold-blooded
2. Endotherms
3. Ectotherms
4. Poikilotherms
Answer:
2. Endotherms

Question 8.
Animals that cannot regulate a constant body temperature are:
1. Warm-blooded
2. Homeotherms
3. Ectotherms
4. Endotherms
Answer:
3. Ectotherms

Question 9.
Water availability influences organisms with respect to:
1. Reproduction
2. Distribution
3. Survival
4. All of these
Answer:
4. All of these

Question 10.
Light is an essential factor for:
1. Digestion
2. Respiration
3. Photosynthesis
4. Excretion
Answer:
3. Photosynthesis

Question 11.
Soil characteristics mainly affect:
1. Mutation
2. Plant growth
3. Enzyme action
4. Animal behaviour
Answer:
2. Plant growth

Question 12.
Adaptation refers to:
1. Growth only
2. Structural and functional adjustments
3. Isolation
4. Mutation only
Answer:
2. Structural and functional adjustments

Question 13.
Migration enables organisms to:
1. Escape unfavorable conditions
2. Find food
3. Avoid predators
4. All of these
Answer:
4. All of these

Question 14.
Hibernation is an adaptation for surviving during:
1. Rainy season
2. Winter
3. Summer
4. Spring
Answer:
2. Winter

Question 15.
Aestivation generally occurs in:
1. Autumn
2. Summer
3. Winter
4. Spring
Answer:
2. Summer

Question 16.
Desert plants commonly show:
1. Soft stems
2. Thick cuticle
3. High transpiration
4. Large leaves
Answer:
2. Thick cuticle

Question 17.
Camels survive in deserts mainly because of:
1. Large ears
2. Water conservation
3. Thin skin
4. High sweating
Answer:
2. Water conservation

Question 18.
Population density refers to the number of individuals per:
1. Organ
2. Cell
3. Unit area
4. Tissue
Answer:
3. Unit area

Question 19.
Natality is another term for:
1. Birth rate
2. Migration
3. Growth
4. Death rate
Answer:
1. Birth rate

Question 20.
Mortality represents the:
1. Growth
2. Migration
3. Death rate
4. Birth rate
Answer:
3. Death rate

Question 21.
Immigration means movement of individuals:
1. Into population
2. Out of population
3. Across species
4. Within population
Answer:
1. Into population

Question 22.
Emigration refers to movement of individuals:
1. Out of population
2. Into population
3. Across species
4. Within population
Answer:
1. Out of population

Question 23.
Population growth is influenced by:
1. Migration
2. Birth
3. Death
4. All of these
Answer:
4. All of these

Question 24.
Exponential growth produces which type of curve?
1. Circular
2. J- shaped
3. Linear
4. S-shaped
Answer:
2. J- shaped

Question 25.
Logistic growth is represented by:
1. Straight line
2. Circular
3. S – shaped
4. J – shaped
Answer:
3. S – shaped

Question 26.
Competition occurs when organisms:
1. Share resources
2. Compete for the same resource
3. Mutate
4. Grow independently
Answer:
2. Compete for the same resource

Question 27.
Predation is an interaction where one organism:
1. Helps another
2. Kills another
3. Mutates
4. Competes
Answer:
2. Kills another

Question 28.
Parasitism benefits:
1. Host only
2. Parasite only
3. Both
4. None
Answer:
2. Parasite only

Question 29.
Mutualism is an interaction that benefits:
1. None
2. Both species
3. Predator
4. One species
Answer:
2. Both species

Question 30.
In commensalism, the beneficiary is:
1. Both
2. One species, the other unaffected
3. Both harmed
4. None
Answer:
2. One species, the other unaffected

Question 31.
Amensalism is an interaction where:
1. One harmed, other unaffected
2. One benefited
3. Both benefited
4. Both harmed
Answer:
1. One harmed, the other unaffected

Question 32.
Population interactions are studied under:
1. Anatomy
2. Ecology
3. Physiology
4. Genetics
Answer:
2. Ecology

Question 33.
Predators help maintain:
1. Growth
2. Mutation
3. Stability
4. Imbalance
Answer:
3. Stability

Question 34.
Adaptations evolve over:
1. Hours
2. Days
3. Generations
4. Minutes
Answer:
3. Generations

Question 35.
Organisms react to environmental changes through:
1. Migration
2. Adapting
3. Hibernating
4. All of these
Answer:
4. All of these

Question 36.
Environmental resistance mainly restricts:
1. Adaptation
2. Population growth
3. Migration
4. Mutation
Answer:
2. Population growth

Question 37.
The suitable temperature range for an organism is known as:
1. Maximum range
2. Fixed range
3. Optimum range
4. Minimum range
Answer:
3. Optimum range

Question 38.
Adaptations enable organisms to:
1. Reproduce
2. Survive
3. Maintain balance
4. All of these
Answer:
4. All of these

Question 39.
Soil primarily influences:
1. Mutation
2. Plant growth
3. Animal growth
4. Digestion
Answer:
2. Plant growth

Question 40.
Ecological niche includes:
1. Resource use
2. Habitat
3. Role of organism
4. All of these
Answer:
4. All of these

Question 41.
Population size changes due to:
1. Migration
2. Birth
3. Death
4. All of these
Answer:
4. All of these

Question 42.
Ecological interactions influence:
1. Ecosystem
2. Population
3. Community
4. All of these
Answer:
4. All of these

Question 43.
Population growth decreases when:
1. Resources are limited
2. Mutation increases
3. Migration increases
4. Resources abundant
Answer:
1. Resources limited

Question 44.
Ecology mainly deals with the study of:
1. Cells
2. Genes
3. Interactions
4. Tissues
Answer:
3. Interactions

Question 45.
The intrinsic rate of natural increase is represented by:
1. N
2. r
3. t
4. K
Answer:
2. r

Question 46.
Carrying capacity is denoted by:
1. r
2. K
3. N
4. t
Answer:
2. K

Question 47.
Logistic growth equation mainly considers:
1. Carrying capacity
2. Mutation
3. Migration
4. Isolation
Answer:
1. Carrying capacity

Question 48.
Which factor directly increases population size?
1. Competition
2. Natality
3. Mortality
4. Emigration
Answer:
2. Natality

Question 49.
Immigration results in:
1. Increase in population
2. No change
3. Mutation
4. Decrease in population
Answer:
1. Increase in population

Question 50.
Emigration causes:
1. Increase in population
2. Mutation
3. No change
4. Decrease in population
Answer:
4. Decrease in population

Question 51.
The age structure of a population is illustrated by:
1. Graph
2. Table
3. Pyramid
4. Curve
Answer:
3. Pyramid

Question 52.
A population with more young individuals shows as:
1. Stable pyramid
2. Expanding pyramid
3. Declining pyramid
4. Bell-shaped pyramid
Answer:
2. Expanding pyramid

Question 53.
A stable population is represented by:
1. Declining
2. Bell-shaped
3. Expanding
4. Irregular
Answer:
2. Bell-shaped

Question 54.
An interaction in which both organisms gain benefit is called:
1. Competition
2. Mutualism
3. Predation
4. Parasitism
Answer:
2. Mutualism

Question 55.
In parasitism, the host is:
1. Harmed
2. Benefited
3. Unaffected
4. Mutated
Answer:
1. Harmed

Question 56.
An organism that feeds on another organism is known as:
1. Host
2. Predator
3. Competitor
4. Parasite
Answer:
2. Predator

Question 57.
Predation helps regulate:
1. Population size
2. Mutation
3. Migration
4. Growth
Answer:
1. Population size

Question 58.
Competition develops when organisms use:
1. Same limited resources
2. Habitat only
3. Same genes
4. Same species only
Answer:
1. Same limited resources

Question 59.
Which interaction harms one species while the other remains unaffected?
1. Mutualism
2. Amensalism
3. Parasitism
4. Commensalism
Answer:
4. Commensalism

Question 60.
In commensalism, one organism benefits while the other is :
1. Benefited
2. Harmed
3. Unaffected
4. Mutated
Answer:
3. Unaffected

Question 61.
Lichens are a classic example of:
1. Competition
2. Mutualism
3. Amensalism
4. Parasitism
Answer:
2. Mutualism

Question 62.
Population growth rate depends on :
1. Mortality
2. Natality
3. Migration
4. All of these
Answer:
4. All of these

Question 63.
Environmental resistance includes factors that:
1. Increase reproduction
2. Limit population growth
3. Increase population
4. Increase mutation
Answer:
2. Limit population growth

Question 64.
The symbol “r” indicates :
1. Population size
2. Growth rate
3. Carrying capacity
4. Time
Answer:
2. Growth rate

Question 65.
Population growth becomes zero when:
1. Resources increase
2. Carrying capacity is reached
3. Migration occurs
4. Birth rate increases
Answer:
2. Carrying capacity is reached

Question 66.
Population regulation mainly occurs because of:
1. Environmental resistance
2. Mutation
3. Reproduction
4. Isolation
Answer:
1. Environmental resistance

Question 67.
When population size equals carrying capacity, growth rate becomes:
1. Negative
2. Zero
3. Maximum
4. Minimum
Answer:
2. Zero

Question 68.
Which interaction negatively affects both participating species?
1. Competition
2. Mutualism
3. Commensalism
4. Parasitism
Answer:
1. Competition

Question 69.
In parasitism, the organism that gains benefit is the:
1. Host
2. Parasite
3. Both
4. None
Answer:
2. Parasite

Question 70.
Predators help preserve ecological balance by:
1. Increasing prey
2. Controlling prey population
3. Causing mutation
4. Increasing growth
Answer:
2. Controlling prey population

Reviewing AP Inter 2nd Year Accounts Study Material Chapter 4 Admission of a Partner Questions and Answers can help students prepare confidently for exams.

AP Inter 2nd Year Accountancy 4th Lesson Admission of a Partner Questions and Answers

I. Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
According to the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, a new partner can be admitted only with the consent of _____________.
Answer:
All the existing Partners

Question 2.
The monetary value of a firm’s reputation in respect of its ability to earn profits above the normal profit is known as _____________.
Answer:
Goodwill

Question 3.
The account prepared for revaluation of assets and reassessment of liabilities at the time of a partner’s admission is _____________ account.
Answer:
Revaluation

Question 4.
A decrease in the value of liabilities is a gain and is _____________ to the Revaluation Account.
Answer:
Credited

Question 5.
Unrecorded liabilities are debited to the _____________ Account.
Answer:
Revaluation

Question 6.
If there is an accumulated loss, it is _____________ to the existing partners’ capital accounts in the existing ratio.
Answer:
Debited

Question 7.
When a new partner pays for _____________ privately, no journal entries are made in the books of the firm.
Answer:
Goodwill

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is the purpose of Revaluation Account?
Answer:
The Revaluation Account is prepared to distribute the profit or loss arising from the revaluation of assets and liabilities among the existing partners before the admission of a new partner.

Question 2.
Define Goodwill.
Answer:
Goodwill is the worth of a firm’s reputation that enables it to earn future profits exceeding the normal level of profits.

Question 3.
What is interest on capital?
Answer:
If the partnership deed permits, the firm pays interest to the partners as compensation for the capital invested by them in the business. This payment is known as Interest on Capital.

Question 4.
What is new profit-sharing ratio?
Answer:

1. When a new partner is admitted into an existing partnership firm, the new partner obtains a share in the future profits, and a fresh profit-sharing ratio is formed among all the partners.
2. This is known as the New Profit-Sharing Ratio.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
List out adjustments to be made at the time of admission of a new partner?
Answer:
When a new partner is admitted into a partnership firm, the existing partnership agreement comes to an end and a fresh agreement is formed. Therefore, the following adjustments are required at the time of admission:

1. Calculation of the new profit-sharing ratio.
2. Revaluation of assets and liabilities.
3. Distribution of accumulated profits, losses, and reserves.
4. Treatment of goodwill.
5. Adjustment of partners’ capital accounts.

Question 2.
Describe the proforma of Revaluation Account.
Answer:
Proforma of Revaluation Account

Question 3.
Explain how a new partner’s sharing ratio is determined.
Answer:
The new profit-sharing ratio is determined according to the agreement between the existing partners and the incoming partner.
The new ratio may be worked out under the following situations:

1. When the new partner’s share is given along with the existing profit-sharing ratio.
2. When the new partner receives an equal share from all the existing partners.
3. When the new partner’s share is taken in a specified ratio from the shares of the old partners.
4. When the existing partners sacrifice a certain proportion of their shares in favour of the new partner.
5. When the entire share of the new partner is obtained from one specific partner.

Question 4.
Explain the treatment for goodwill when a new partner pays for it privately.
Answer:
Different methods are followed for the treatment of goodwill when a new partner is admitted. Normally, goodwill is credited to the old partners in their sacrificing ratio. However, if the new partner pays the goodwill amount directly to the existing partners in a private arrangement, no journal entry is recorded in the books of the firm.

Question 5.
How accumulated profits or losses are treated in accounting upon a new partner’s admission?
Answer:
Any accumulated profits or reserves shown in the balance sheet at the time of admitting a new partner are credited to the existing partners’ capital accounts in their old profit-sharing ratio. Likewise, any accumulated loss is debited to the existing partners’ capital accounts in the same ratio.

Question 6.
Explain how to distribute a Revaluation Account’s gain or loss among existing partners prior to admission of a new partner?
Answer:
The Revaluation Account is credited with the increase in the value of assets and the decrease in the value of liabilities. It is debited with the decrease in the value of assets and the increase in the value of liabilities. The resulting balance, whether profit or loss, is transferred to the existing partners’ capital accounts in their old profit-sharing ratio.

Question 7.
How goodwill should be treated when the new partner brings his/her share of goodwill in cash?
Answer:
When the new partner brings their share of goodwill in cash, it is considered an additional amount paid to compensate the existing partners for sacrificing part of their future profit share. The goodwill brought in cash is distributed among the old partners according to their Sacrificing Ratio.

Exercises

Question 1.
Raju and Rani are partners sharing profit and losses in the 3 : 2 ratio. They have decided to admit Kumar by giving him 1/4^th share in future profits. Calculate the new profit-sharing ratio.
Solution:
If we assume the total share is 1
The new partner Kumar’s share = \(\frac{1}{4}\) share out of 1
Rest of the share = 1 – \(\frac{1}{4}\) = \(\frac{3}{4}\)
Old Ration = 3 : 2
New Share = Rest of the share × old share
Raju’s new share = \(\frac{3}{4}\) × \(\frac{3}{5}\) = \(\frac{9}{20}\), Raju’s new share = \(\frac{3}{4}\) × \(\frac{2}{5}\) = \(\frac{6}{20}\)
New Ratio = \(\frac{9}{20}\) : \(\frac{6}{20}\) : \(\frac{1}{4}\)
To compare Kumar’s Share (Equating the Denominators all partners share), we convert 1/4 to a denominator of 20 by multiplying both numerator and denominator with 5:
= \(\frac{1}{4}\) × \(\frac{5}{5}\) = \(\frac{5}{20}\)
Therefore, the new profit sharing ratio of Raju, Vinay and Rani = \(\frac{9}{20}\) : \(\frac{6}{20}\) : \(\frac{5}{20}\) or 9 : 6 : 5

Question 2.
P & Q are partners sharing in the ratio of 2 : 3. They admit R for 1/4^th share and he gets this share equally from P & Q. Calculate new ratio.
Solution:
If we assume the total share is 1
The new partner R’s share = 1/4 share out of 1
Since R gets this share “equally” from both each old partner gives up half of R’s share.
P’s sacrifice = \(\frac{1}{4}\) × \(\frac{1}{2}\) = \(\frac{1}{8}\) ; Q’s sacrifice = \(\frac{1}{4}\) × \(\frac{1}{2}\) = \(\frac{1}{8}\)
New Share = old share – sacrifice share
P’s new share = \(\frac{2}{5}\) – \(\frac{1}{8}\) = \(\frac{16-5}{40}\) = \(\frac{11}{40}\) ; Q’s new share = \(\frac{3}{5}\) – \(\frac{1}{8}\) = \(\frac{24-5}{40}\) = \(\frac{19}{40}\)
New Ratio = \(\frac{11}{40}\) : \(\frac{19}{40}\) : \(\frac{1}{4}\)
To compare R’s Share (Equating the Denominators all partners share), we convert 1/4 to a denominator of 40 by multiplying both numerator and denominator with 10:
= \(\frac{1}{4}\) × \(\frac{10}{10}\) = \(\frac{10}{40}\) = \(\frac{1}{4}\)
Therefore, the new profit sharing ratio of P, Q and R = \(\frac{11}{40}\) : \(\frac{19}{40}\) : \(\frac{10}{40}\) or 11 : 19 : 10

Question 3.
X and Y share profits and losses in the Ratio of 4 : 3, they admit Z with 3/7^th share; which he gets 2/7^th from X and 1/7 from Y. What is the new profit sharing ratio?
Solution:
If we assume the total share is 1
The new partner Z’s share = \(\frac{3}{7}\) share Out of 1
X’s sacrifice = \(\frac{2}{7}\), Y‘s sacrifice = \(\frac{1}{7}\)
New Share = Old share – sacrifice share
X’s new share = \(\frac{4}{2}\) – \(\frac{2}{7}\) = \(\frac{2}{7}\) ; Y’s new share = \(\frac{3}{7}\) – \(\frac{1}{7}\) = \(\frac{2}{7}\)
New Ratio = \(\frac{2}{7}\) : \(\frac{2}{7}\) = \(\frac{3}{7}\)
Since all the denominators are the same, i.e., 7, the new profit sharing ratio of X, Y and Z = 2 : 2 : 3

Question 4.
Tarun & Nisha are partners share profits in the ratio of 5 : 3. Ramu the new partner gets 1/5 of Tarun’s share and 1/3^rd of Nisha’s share. Calculate new profit-sharing ratio.
Solution:
If we assume the total share is 1
The new partner Ramu’s share = \(\frac{1}{5}\) + \(\frac{1}{3}\) = \(\frac{2}{8}\) = \(\frac{1}{4}\)
Tarun’s sacrifice = \(\frac{5}{8}\) × \(\frac{1}{5}\) = \(\frac{5}{40}\) = \(\frac{1}{8}\), Nisha’s sacrifice = \(\frac{3}{8}\) × \(\frac{1}{3}\) × \(\frac{3}{24}\) = \(\frac{1}{8}\)
Old Partners New Share = Old Share – Sacrifice Share
Tarun’s new share = \(\frac{5}{8}\) – \(\frac{1}{8}\) = \(\frac{4}{8}\) = \(\frac{1}{2}\); Nisha’s new share = \(\frac{3}{8}\) – \(\frac{1}{8}\) = \(\frac{2}{8}\) = \(\frac{1}{4}\)
New Ratio = \(\frac{1}{2}\) : \(\frac{1}{4}\) : \(\frac{1}{4}\)
To compare Tarun’s Share (Equating the Denominators all partners share), we convert 1/2 to a denominator of 4 by multiplying both numerator and denominator with 2:
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) × \(\frac{2}{2}\) = \(\frac{2}{4}\)
Therefore, the new profit sharing ratio of Tarun, Nisha and Ramu = \(\frac{2}{4}\) : \(\frac{1}{4}\) : \(\frac{1}{4}\) or 2 : 1 : 1.

Question 5.
Vijay and Sanjay are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 1 : 2. They decide to admit Ajay into partnership with 1/4 share in profits. Ajay brings in ₹ 30,000 for capital and ₹ 15,000 for goodwill. Give necessary journal entries,
a) When the amount of goodwill is retained in the business.
b) When the amount of goodwill is fully withdrawn.
Solution:
a) When the amount of goodwill is retained in the business

b) When the amount of goodwill is fully withdrawn.

Question 6.
A and B are partners sharing profits and losses equally. They admit C into partnership and the new ratio is fixed as 4 : 3 : 2. C is unable to bring anything for goodwill but brings ₹ 25,000 as capital. Goodwill of the firm is valued at ₹ 18,000. Give the necessary journal entries assuming that the partners do not want goodwill to appear in the Balance Sheet.
Solution:
Entry for capital brought by C

Entry to create goodwill

Entry to write off goodwill

Note:

1. Goodwill is written off in new ratio:
A’s share = 18,000 × 4/9 = ₹ 8,000 ;
B’s share = 18,000 × 3/9 = ₹ 6,000 ;
C’s share = 18,000 × 2/9 = ₹ 4,000
2. Net gain to A = 9,000 – 8,000 = 1,000
3. Net gain to B = 9,000 – 6,000 = 3,000
4. New partner C compensates old partners ₹ 4,000

Question 7.
Arun and Ajay are partners sharing profit in the ratio of 3 : 2. On 1^st April 2025 they admit Anil as a new partner for 1/6 share in profits. On that date the balance sheet of the firm shows a balance of ₹ 60,000 in general reserve and Credit balance of Profit and Loss A/c of ₹ 25,000. Make the necessary journal entries.
Solution:
Journal Entries

Working Note:
1. Distribution of General Reserve (60,000)

Arun’s Share = 60,000 × 3/5 = 36,000
Ajay’s Share = 60,000 × 2/5 = 24,000

2. Distribution of Profit & Loss A/c Balance (25,000)

Arun’s Share = 25,000 × 3/5 = 15,000
Ajay’s Share = 25,000 × 2/5 = 10,000

Question 8.
A and B are equal partners in a firm. They decide to admit C as a new partner for 1/5^th share in profit. On the date of admission the balance sheet of firm was as follows:

The terms of agreement on C’s admission were as follows:
1. Building will be valued at ₹ 65,000 and machinery at ₹ 20,000
2. Creditors included ₹ 1,000 is no longer payable.
Pass necessary Journal entries for revaluation of assets and liabilities.
Solution:

Working Note:
1. Profit on Revaluation:

• A Building: New Value (65,000) – Old Value (50,000) = ₹ 15,000
• Creditors: Amount no longer payable = 1,000

2. Loss on Revaluation:

• A Machinery: Old Value (25,000) – New Value (20,000) = ₹ 5,000

3. Net Revaluation Profit:

• Net Profit = Total Profit (16,000) – Total Loss (5,000) = ₹ 11,000

4. Distribution of Profit (Ratio 1 : 1):

• A’s Share = 11,000 × 1/2 = 5,500
• B’s Share = 11,000 × 1/2 = 5,500

Question 9.
Krishna and Balaram are partners sharing profit and losses in the ratio of 4 : 1. Their Balance Sheet was as follows:

Arjun is admitted as a partner and assets are revalued and liabilities reassessed as follows:

1. Create a Provision for doubtful debt on debtors at ₹ 800.
2. Buildings are appreciated by 10%.
3. Machinery is depreciated at 10%
4. Creditors were written off by ₹ 500.

Make journal entries and prepare a revaluation account before the admission of Arjun.
Solution:

Question 10.
Balance Sheet of Sudheer and Kiran as on 31.03.2024.

The other terms of agreements on Surya’s admission were as follows:

1. Surya will bring ₹ 12,000 for his share of capital.
2. Building will be valued at ₹ 1,80,000
3. Machinery valued at ₹ 50,000.
4. A provision of 5% will be created on debtors for bad debts. Prepare Revaluation Account and Partners Capital Accounts.

Solution:

Note: Since profit sharing ratio of old partners not mentioned, it is assumed to be 1 : 1.

Question 11.
The following is the balance sheet of Ram and Shyam, who are sharing profit as 4/7 and 3/7 as on 31st March 2024.

They agree to admit Mohan into partnership on the following terms:

1. Mohan was to be given 1/3 share in the profit and to bring ₹ 7,500 as his capital and 2800 as his share of goodwill.
2. That the value Plant & Machinery were to be reduced by 5%.
3. That a reserve of 10% was to be created in respect of Sundry Debtors.
4. The buildings were to be appreciated by 10%.

Prepare necessary Accounts.
Solution:

Working Note:

1. Distribution of Profits

• Total Profit on Revaluation: ₹ 1,400
• Ram’s Share: 1400 × 4/7 = 800
• Shyam’s Share: 1400 × 3/7 = 600

2. Distribution of Goodwill

• Total Profit on Revaluation: ₹ 2,800
• Ram’s Share: 2800 × 4/7 = 1600
• Shyam’s Share: 2800 × 3/7 = 1200

Question 12.
Ishan and Vihan are partners in a firm, sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5 : 3, on 31^st December, 2024 their Balance sheet was as under:

On the above date they decided to admit Vishwa as a partner on the following terms:

1. Vishwa will bring ₹ 90,000 as his capital and ₹ 24,000 for his share of goodwill for 1/4^th share in the profit.
2. Machinery is to be valued at ₹ 1,50,000 and stock to be valued at ₹ 1,00,000
3. Provision for bad debts of ₹ 10,000 is to be created.

Prepare Revaluation A/c, Partners’ Capital A/c and new Balance Sheet.
Solution:

Question 13.
Rashmi and Pooja are partners in a firm. They share profits and losses in the ratio of 2 : 1. They admit Santoshi into partnership firm on the condition that she will bring ₹ 1,50,000 for capital and she will be given 1/3 share in future profits. At the time of admission, the Balance Sheet of Rashmi and Pooja was as under:

It was decided to:

1. Revaluate stock at ₹ 45,000.
2. Depreciate furniture by 10% and machinery by 5%.
3. Make provision of ₹ 3,000 for bad debts on sundry debtors.

Prepare Revaluation Account, Partners’ Capital Accounts and Balance Sheet of the new firm.
Solution:

Question 14.
Venu & Venkat are partners in a business sharing profits and losses equally. Their Balance Sheet on 31-3-2024 stood as under;

They decided to admit Naidu into firm on 1st April, 2024 on following terms and conditions.

1. Naidu has to pay ₹ 1,25,000/- for 1/4^th share in future profits.
2. Naidu has to pay ₹ 38,000/- for goodwill.
3. Plant and Machinery to be depreciated by 40%.
4. Buildings to be appreciated by 20%.
5. 5% reserve for doubtful debts to be created on debtors

Prepare necessary accounts in the books of the firm after admission of Naidu with new Balance Sheet.
Solution:

Question 15.
Arun and Karthik are carrying on business in a partnership, sharing profit & loss in the ratio of 2:3. Their Balance sheet as on 31-12-2024 was as under.

On that day they admitted Naveen into partnership and gave him 1/6^th share in the future profits on the following terms.

1. Naveen is to bring in ₹ 1,50,000 as his capital and ₹ 50,000 as Goodwill, which sum is to remain in the business.
2. Furniture is to be reduced in value by 10%.
3. Buildings are to be appreciated by ₹ 25,000.
4. A provision of 5% to be created for doubtful debts.

Make necessary Ledger Accounts and Balance Sheet of the new firm.
Solution:

Question 16.
Bhanu and Prasad are partners sharing profit and losses in the ratio of 3 : 2 respectively. Their Balance Sheet as on March 31st, 2025 was as under:

On that date, they admit Deepak into partnership for 1/3 share in future profit on the following terms:

1. Building is appreciated by ₹ 20,000.
2. 5% provision is to be created on Debtors for doubtful debts.
3. Prepaid expenditure of ₹ 2000 was not recorded in the books.
4. Deepak is to bring in ₹ 50,000 as his capital and ₹ 30,000 as goodwill.

Make necessary Ledger Accounts and Balance Sheet of the new firm.
Solution:

Question 17.
The following is the Balance Sheet of Arun and Tarun sharing profit and losses in the ratio of 2 : 1.

They agreed to admit Varun into partnership on the following terms:

1. Varun to pay ₹ 9,000 as Goodwill.
2. Varun brings ₹ 11,000 as Capital for 1/4 share of profit in the business.
3. Building and furniture to be depreciated at 5%.
4. Stock is reduced by ₹ 1,600 and Reserve of Bad Debt ₹ 1,400 to be provided. Prepare necessary ledger account and balance sheet after admission.

Solution:

Question 18.
Ashish and Pankaj are partners sharing profit in the ratio of 5 : 3, their Balance sheet on March 31st, 2025 was as follows:

They admitted Guru deep into partnership for 1/4^th share on the following terms on March 31st, 2025.

1. He will bring in ₹ 1,00,000 as his shared capital.
2. Stock is valued at ₹ 87,000.
3. Creditors of ₹ 6,000 are not shown in the books.
4. A provision for doubtful debts is to be created by 5% on debtors.

Prepare Revaluation account, Capital Accounts, Bank account and Balance Sheet of the new firm after admission of Guru deep.
Solution:

Question 19.
The Balance Sheet of Sarath and Sindhu as on 31.12.2024, who are sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 4 : 1 is as follows:

They have agreed to admit Sameer under the following conditions:

1. Sameer has to bring a capital of ₹ 2,00,000 for his 1/5th share of profits.
2. Furniture have to be depreciated by 10%
3. Land and Buildings has to be appreciated by 20%
4. Goodwill has to be raised by ₹ 80000
Prepare necessary ledger A/c and the balance sheet of the new firm.
Solution:

Question 20.
Given below is the Balance Sheet of Venu and Suresh, who are carrying on partnership business on 31.12.2024. Venu and Suresh are sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2 : 1.

Mahesh is admitted as a partner on the date of the balance sheet on the following terms:

1. Mahesh will bring in ₹ 1,00,000 as his capital and ₹ 60,000 as his share of goodwill for 1/4 share in the profits.
2. Plant is to be appreciated to ₹ 1,20,000 and the value of buildings is to be appreciated by 10%.
3. A provision for bad and doubtful debts is to be created at 5% of debtors.
4. Creditors were unrecorded to the extent of ₹ 2,000.

Prepare the revaluation account and partners’ capital accounts, and show the Balance Sheet after the admission of Mahesh.
Solution:

Question 21.
Following is the Balance Sheet of Satyam and Shivam sharing profit as 3 : 2.

On admission of Sundaram for 1/6th share in the profit it was decided that:

1. Provision for doubtful debts to be increased by 1,500.
2. Value of stock to be increased by 2,500.
3. Sundaram brought in as his share of goodwill 10,000 in cash.
4. Sundaram was to bring further cash of 15,000 for her capital.

Prepare Revaluation A/c, Partners’ Capital A/c and the Balance Sheet of the new firm.
Solution:

Note : New Provision 1,000 (Existing) + 1,500 (increase) = ₹ 2,500

Question 22.
Ramesh, Suresh and Naresh are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 1:2:3. On 31st March 2024, their Balance Sheet was as follows;

They admit Dinesh into partnership on the following terms:

1. Furniture and Machinery to be depreciated by 5%.
2. Stock is revaluated at 48,000.
3. Outstanding rent amount to 1,800.
4. Dinesh to bring 32,000 towards his capital for l/6th share.

Prepare Revaluation Account, Partners’ Capital Accounts and Balance Sheet of the new firm.
Solution:

For systematic learning, students can include AP Inter 2nd Year English Grammar with Answers and Idioms and Phrases in English Inter 1st Year in their daily study routine.

AP Inter 2nd Year English Idioms and Phrases with Answers

Idioms (Metaphorical) : Expressions whose meanings are different from their literal words and are based on cultural understanding.
Examples: “Piece of cake” (very easy), “Under the weather” (sick)

Phrases (Literal): Groups of words that work together and carry their direct, dictionary meaning but don’t form a complete sentence.
Examples: “In the morning,” “On the table”

Idioms and Phrases with Meanings:

G – 1 : “Hand” Idioms

G-2: “Heart” Idioms

Common and Everyday Idioms :

1. A piece of cake = Something very easy
Eg: The maths test was a piece of cake because you revised thoroughly.

2. Once in a blue moon = Something that happens rarely.
Eg: He visits his hometown once in a blue moon after moving abroad.

3. On cloud nine = Extremely happy.
Eg: She was on cloud nine when her article got published in an international journal.

4. Keep an eye on = Watch carefully.
Eg: Please keep an eye on the experiment while I attend the meeting.

5. Crocodile tears = Fake show of sadness.
Eg: The politician’s apology sounded like crocodile tears to the public.

6. Let the cat out of the bag = Reveal a secret unintentionally.
Eg: He accidentally let the cat out of the bag about the surprise party.

7. Throw in the towel = To give up.
Eg: After three failed attempts, she refused to throw in the towel and tried again.

8. Burn the candle at both ends = Overwork day and night.
Eg: Preparing for exams while working part-time made him burn the candle at both ends.

9. The ball is in your court = It’s your decision now.
Eg: I’ve explained the proposal; now the ball is in your court.

10. Hit the books = To study hard.
Eg: With finals approaching, it’s time to hit the books seriously.

11. Learn the ropes = To understand how something is done.
Eg: During your internship, you will learn the ropes of academic publishing.

12. Make ends meet; = To survive with limited money.
Eg: They started a small business to make ends meet during difficult times.

13. In hot water = In trouble.
Eg: He found himself in hot water after missing the project deadline.

14. Up in the air = Uncertain, undecided.
Eg: Our travel plans are still up in the air due to uncertain weather.

15. Pull strings = Use influence for advantage.
Eg: She didn’t pull strings; she earned the scholarship on merit.

16. Rule of thumb = A general principle.
Eg: As a rule of thumb, double-check your citations before submission.

17. A hard nut to crack = A difficult problem/person.
Eg: This philosophical text is a hard nut to crack without background knowledge.

18. Go the extra mile = To make more effort.
Eg: She went the extra mile to gather rare archival materials for her thesis.

19. Think outside the box = To think creatively.
Eg: The team solved the issue by thinking outside the box.

20. Put all your eggs in one basket = Depend on only one plan.
Eg: Investing all your savings in one company means putting all your eggs in one basket.

21. Throw light on = Explain clearly.
Eg: The new evidence throws light on the author’s hidden intentions.

22. Grasp at straws = Try anything in desperation.
Eg: Without solid proof, he was merely grasping at straws.

23. On the same page = In agreement.
Eg: Let’s meet tomorrow to ensure we are on the same page about the research design.

24. Pull your weight = Do your fair share of work.
Eg: Every member must pull their weight to complete the group assignment.

25. Keep at bay = Keep something away.
Eg: Regular exercise helps keep stress at bay.

26. At loggerheads = In strong disagreement.
Eg: The two scholars were at loggerheads over their interpretations of the theory.

27. Read between the lines = Understand hidden meaning.
Eg: If you read between the lines, the letter reveals disappointment.

28. In cold blood = Without any emotion or pity.
Eg: The crime was committed in cold blood without any remorse.

29. Bird’s eye view = An overall view.
Eg: The introduction gives a bird’s eye view of the entire study.

30. Fish out of water = Someone uncomfortable in a situation.
Eg: He felt like a fish out of water at the elite conference.

31. At sixes and sevens = In confusion or disorder.
Eg: The office was at sixes and sevens after the sudden policy change.

32. In the nick of time = Just at the last moment.
Eg: She submitted the application in the nick of time.

33. Hit below the belt = To act unfairly.
Eg: Criticizing her personal life was hitting below the belt.

34. Throw dust in someone’s eyes = To mislead or deceive.
Eg: The company tried to throw dust in consumers’ eyes with false advertisements.

35. Have the upper hand = To be in control.
Eg: With more evidence, the defense had the upper hand.

36. Blow one’s own trumpet = To boast.
Eg: He constantly blows his own trumpet about minor achievements.

37. Bear the brunt of = Suffer the worst part of something.
Eg: Small businesses bore the brunt of the economic crisis.

38. Put the cart before the horse = Doing things in the wrong order.
Eg: Starting analysis before collecting data is putting the cart before the horse.

39. Stick to one’s guns = Refuse to change one’s opinion.
Eg: Despite criticism, she stuck to her guns and defended her argument.

40. Eat humble pie = To admit one’s mistake.
Eg: After the results were announced, he had to eat humble pie.

41. A blessing in disguise = Something good that seemed bad at first.
Eg: Losing that job turned out to be a blessing in disguise.

42. Burn the midnight oil = Work late into the night.
Eg: She burned the midnight oil to finish editing her manuscript.

43. Hit the nail on the head = To say exactly the right thing.
Eg: Your comment hit the nail on the head regarding the core issue.

44. Bite the bullet = To face something unpleasant with courage.
Eg: He decided to bite the bullet and apologize.

45. Break the ice = To start a conversation in a social setting.
Eg: The host told a joke to break the ice at the seminar.

46. Call it a day = Stop working for the day.
Eg: After hours of discussion, they decided to call it a day.

47. Spill the beans = Reveal a secret.
Eg: Who spilled the beans about the confidential meeting?

48. Kick the bucket = To die (informal).
Eg: In the novel, the old landlord suddenly kicks the bucket.

49. Hit the sack = Go to bed/sleep.
Eg: I’m exhausted; I’ll hit the sack early tonight.

50. Miss the boat = To miss an opportunity.
Eg: If you delay your application, you might miss the boat.

Practice

Question 1.
Match the following idioms/phrases with its meaning :

Answer:

Exercise

In each of the following questions, an idiomatic expression/ a phrase/ proverb has been given, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase/ proverb :

Question 1.
A blessing in disguise means:
a) A hidden enemy
b) Something good that seemed bad at first
c) A false promise
Answer:
b) Something good that seemed bad at first

Question 2.
Stick to one’s guns means:
a) Refuse to change one’s opinion
b) Change opinion
c) Argue loudly
Answer:
a) Refuse to change one’s opinion

Question 3.
Hit the nail on the head means:
a) Make a mistake
b) Say exactly the right thing
c) Start a fight
Answer:
b) Say exactly the right thing

Question 4.
Break the ice means:
a) Start a quarrel
b) End a friendship
c) Start a conversation in a social setting
Answer:
c) Start a conversation in a social setting

Question 5.
Throw dust in someone’s eyes means:
a) Help someone
b) Mislead or deceive
c) Protect someone
Answer:
b) Mislead or deceive

Question 6.
Spill the beans means:
a) Cook food
b) Waste money
c) Reveal a secret
Answer:
c) Reveal a secret

Question 7.
Go the extra mile means:
a) Travel far
b) Make extra effort
c) Give up
Answer:
b) Make extra effort

Question 8.
Hit the sack means:
a) Pack luggage
b) Go to bed
c) Leave hometown
Answer:
b) Go to bed

Question 9.
Miss the boat means:
a) Lose luggage
b) Miss an opportunity
c) Arrive early
Answer:
b) Miss an opportunity

Question 10.
A piece of cake means:
a) Very tasty
b) Very easy
c) Very Expensive
Answer:
b) Very easy

Question 11.
Throw light on means:
a) Switch on light
b) Explain clearly
c) Hide facts
Answer:
b) Explain clearly

Question 12.
On cloud nine means:
a) Confused
b) Extremely happy
c) Angry
Answer:
b) Extremely happy

Question 13.
Keep an eye on means:
a) Ignore
b) Watch carefully
c) Criticize
Answer:
b) Watch carefully

Question 14.
In hot water means:
a) Bathing
b) In trouble
c) Relaxing
Answer:
b) In trouble

Question 15.
Let the cat out of the bag means:
a) Free an animal
b) Hide a secret
c) Reveal a secret unintentionally
Answer:
c) Reveal a secret unintentionally

Question 16.
Burn the candle at both ends means:
a) Relax often
b) Overwork day and night
c) Waste time
Answer:
b) Overwork day and night

Question 17.
By the book means:
a) According to rules
b) Without effort
c) Quickly
Answer:
a) According to rules

Question 18.
At the drop of a hat means:
a) Slowly
b) Instantly
c) Rarely
Answer:
b) Instantly

Question 19.
Learn the ropes means:
a) Climb up
b) Understand how something is done
c) Teach someone
Answer:
b) Understand how something is done

Question 20.
Crocodile tears means:
a) Real sadness
b) Fake sadness
c) Deep regret
Answer:
b) Fake sadness

Question 21.
Make ends meet means:
a) Meet friends
b) Manage with limited money
c) Save extra money
Answer:
b) Manage with limited money

Question 22.
The ball is in your court means:
a) Play a game
b) It’s your decision now
c) You lost
Answer:
b) It’s your decision now

Question 23.
Take to task means:
a) Praise
b) Ignore
c) Scold or punish
Answer:
c) Scold or punish

Question 24.
Pull strings means:
a) Play music
b) Use influence for advantage
c) Work hard
Answer:
b) Use influence for advantage

Question 25.
Pull your weight means:
a) Gain weight
b) Relax
c) Do your fair share of work
Answer:
c) Do your fair share of work

Question 26.
A hard nut to crack means:
a) Easy task
b) Sweet person
c) Difficult problem/person
Answer:
c) Difficult problem/person

Question 27.
Read between the lines means:
a) Understand hidden meaning
b) Read carefully
c) Read aloud
Answer:
a) Understand hidden meaning

Question 28.
Hit the books means:
a) Throw books
b) Buy books
c) Study hard
Answer:
c) Study hard

Question 29.
Think outside the box means:
a) Think negatively
b) Think creatively
c) Think simply
Answer:
b) Think creatively

Question 30.
Touch base means:
a) Play baseball
b) Briefly reconnect
c) Argue
Answer:
b) Briefly reconnect

Question 31.
Call it a day means:
a) Plan tomorrow
b) Stop working for the day
c) Celebrate success
Answer:
b) Stop working for the day

Question 32.
Grasp at straws means:
a) Hold firmly
b) Try anything in desperation
c) Work carefully
Answer:
b) Try anything in desperation

Question 33.
Have the upper hand means:
a) Be in control
b) Lose control
c) Ask for help
Answer:
a) Be in control

Question 34.
In black and white means:
a) Colorless
b) Written clearly
c) Old-fashioned
Answer:
b) Written clearly

Question 35.
Rule of thumb means:
a) Strict law
b) General principle
c) Punishment
Answer:
b) General principle

Question 36.
At loggerheads means:
a) Friendly
b) In strong disagreement
c) In celebration
Answer:
b) In strong disagreement

Question 37.
In-cold blood means:
a) Angry
b) Without emotion or pity
c) With fear
Answer:
b) Without emotion or pity

Question 38.
Bite the bullet means:
a) Avoid danger
b) Face something unpleasant with courage
c) Speak angrily
Answer:
b) Face something unpleasant with courage

Question 39.
Bird’s eye view means:
a) Close look
b) Overall view
c) Personal view
Answer:
b) Overall view

Question 40.
Kick the bucket means:
a) Become angry
b) To die (informal)
c) Fall down
Answer:
b) To die (informal)

Question 41.
Fish out of water means
a) Good swimmer
b) Uncomfortable in a situation
c) Happy person
Answer:
b) Uncomfortable in a situation

Question 42.
Bear the brunt of means:
a) Avoid trouble
b) Share happiness
c) Suffer the worst part
Answer:
c) Suffer the worst part

Question 43.
In the nick of time means:
a) Too late
b) Very early
c) Just at the last moment
Answer:
c) Just at the last moment

Question 44.
Once in a blue moon means:
a) Every day
b) Often
c) Very rarely
Answer:
c) Very rarely

Question 45.
Hit below the belt means:
a) Fight fairly
b) Act unfairly
c) Win honestly
Answer:
b) Act unfairly

Question 46.
Blow one’s own trumpet means:
a) Play music
b) Boast
c) Apologize
Answer:
b) Boast

Question 47.
At sixes and sevens means:
a) Ordered
b) In confusion
c) Organized
Answer:
b) In confusion

Question 48.
Put the cart before the horse means:
a) Work fast
b) Do things in the wrong order
c) Finish early
Answer:
b) Do things in the wrong order

Question 49.
Burn the midnight oil means:
a) Waste electricity
b) Sleep late
c) Work late into the night
Answer:
c) Work late into the night

Question 50.
Eat humble pie means:
a) Celebrate
b) Admit one’s mistake
c) Cook food
Answer:
b) Admit one’s mistake

For systematic learning, students can include AP Inter 2nd Year English Grammar with Answers and Word Stress in English Inter 1st Year in their daily study routine.

AP Inter 2nd Year English Word Stress with Answers

Syllable and Stress:

Introduction :
A syllable is a group of one or more sounds with the vowel sound as its essential part. Words are made of one or more syllables.

Ex :

1. Objection (Ob. jec. tion) Three syllables. (Tri syllabic word)
2. Intelligence (In.te.lii.gence) 4 syllables. (Tetra syllabic word)
3. Light (One syllable). (Mono syllabic word)

Stress :
In a word, some syllables are pronounced with greater force than others. The syllable which is pronounced with greater force is said to be stressed or accented.

Stress is marked in a word by putting a small vertical bar before the syllable.
Ex : ‘artist’, ‘doctor’, ‘forget’, ‘to’day.

Division of syllables :

A syllable is the smallest unit of speech. Vowels and consonants combine in the structure of a syllable. Syllables are divided into four kinds.
They are :

1. Mono syllabic words.
2. Di syllabic words.
3. Tri syllabic words.
4. Poly syllabic words.

Rules of Word Stress:

1. One-syllable words
All one-syllable words are stressed.
Examples cat, dog, book, play, go
Explanation: No choice here – the only syllable takes the stress.

2. Two-syllable nouns → stress on the first syllable
Examples: TA-ble, WIN-dow, PEN-cil, DOC-tor
Explanation: Nouns usually carry meaning in the first syllable.

3. Two-syllable adjectives → stress on the first syllable
Examples: HAP-py, CLE-ver, QUI-et
Explanation: Adjectives behave like nouns – stress normally comes first.

4. Two-syllable verbs → stress on the second syllable
Examples: to re-LAX, to be-GIN, to de-CIDE
Explanation: Verbs usually carry stress at the end, to show action.

5. Nouh-verb stress Ahiff {saifte spelling, different meaning)

• Noun → stress on the first syllable
• Verb → stress on the second syllable

Examples: RE-cord (noun) vs. to re-CORD (verb)
PRE-sent (noun) vs. to pre-SENT (verb)
Explanation: Stress helps show meaning difference.

6. Compound nouns → stress on the first part
Examples: POST-man, FOOT-ball, BLACK-board
Explanation: The main idea comes first, the type second.

7. Compound adjectives → stress on the second part
Examples: bad-TEM-pered, old-FASH-ioned, well-KNOWN
Explanation: Stress falls where the description is strongest.

8. Compound verbs stress on the second part
Examples: to under-STAND, to over-COME, to out-DO
Explanation: The main action sits in the second syllable.

9. Words ending in → stress the syllable before
Examples: geo-GRAPH-ic, dra-MAT-ic, eco-NOM-ic
Explanation: -ic endings push stress backward one syllable.

10. Words ending in -sion / -tion → stress the syllable before
Examples: re-LAX-ation, tele-VI-sion, de-CIS-ion
Explanation: These endings shift stress to the syllable before them.

11. Words ending in -ity → stress falls on third syllable from the end
Examples: e-lec-TRI-ci-ty, re-spon-si-BI-li-ty, sim-PL-ci-ty
Explanation: The stress usually goes two syllables before the end.

12. Words ending in -graphy → stress third syllable from the end
Examples: pho-TO-gra-phy, bi-O-gra-phy, ge-O-gra-phy
Explanation: Stress jumps back three places.

13. Words ending in -logy → stress third syllable from the end
Examples: bi-O-lo-gy, psy-CHO-lo-gy, tech-NO-lo-gy
Explanation: Same rule as -gra-phy.

14. Words ending in -ee → stress at syllable
Examples: em-ploy-EE, re-fu-GEE, gua-ran-ti-EE
Explanation: The -ee syllable always gets stressed.

15. Words ending in -eer → stress on -eer
Examples: en-gin-EER, vo-lunt-EER, moun-taine-ER
Explanation: Like -ee, the -eer syllable carries stress.

16. Words ending in- ese → stress on -ese
Examples: Ja-pan-ESE, Por-tu-gal-ESE
Explanation: Nationalities with -ese take stress at the end.

17. Words ending in -ique → stress on -ique
Examples: crit-IQUE, un-IQUE, an-TIQUE
Explanation: The -ique syllable always takes stress.

18. Prefixes are usually unstressed
Examples: UN-ha-ppy, RE-write, IM-po-ssi-ble
Explanation. The stress falls later in the word, not on the prefix.

Practice

1.

2.

Exercise

Question 1.
Mark the stress to the following words :

Answers:

Reviewing AP Inter 2nd Year Zoology Study Material Chapter 7 Biotechnology and Its Applications Questions and Answers can help students prepare confidently for exams.

AP Inter 2nd Year Zoology 7th Lesson Biotechnology and Its Applications Questions and Answers

IV. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is the disadvantage of using insulin obtained from animal sources in humans beings?
Answer:

1. Animal-derived insulin (from cattle or pigs) may trigger allergic or immune reactions because it is recognized as a foreign protein.
2. It is also less suitable and less effective than recombinant human insulin.

Question 2.
What is C-peptide?
Answer:

1. C-peptide is an additional polypeptide segment present in proinsulin, the precursor of insulin.
2. It connects the A and B polypeptide chains and is removed during the formation of mature insulin.

Question 3.
Define Gene Therapy.
Answer:
Gene therapy is a medical technique in which defective genes are replaced or corrected • by introducing normal functional genes to treat inherited genetic disorders.

Question 4.
How are lymphocytes used to treat ADA deficiency?
Answer:

1. Lymphocytes are collected from the patient, cultured, and a functional ADA gene is inserted into them using a suitable vector.
2. The genetically corrected lymphocytes are then reintroduced into the patient’s body. Since these cells survive only for a limited time, the treatment needs to be repeated periodically.

Question 5.
What are the Advantages of molecular diagnostics?
Answer:

1. Molecular diagnostics enables early and precise detection of diseases by identifying pathogens even in very small amounts.
2. It also helps detect genetic mutations and diagnose infectious diseases with high sensitivity and accuracy.

Question 6.
What are transgenic animals?
Answer:

1. They are animals whose DNA has been genetically modified to carry and express an additional foreign gene.
2. They are used for producing valuable proteins; for ft, human α-1 antitrypsin produced in transgenic animals is used in the treatment of emphysema.

Question 7.
In what way is the milk of the transgenic cow Rosie superior to normal cow’s milk?
Answer:

1. Rosie’s milk is enriched with the human protein alpha-lactalbumin, making it more nutritious and better suited for human infants than ordinary cow’s milk.
2. It is also easier to digest compared to regular cow’s milk..

Question 8.
What is GEAC? What is its role?
Answer:
The Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (GEAC) is a regulatory body established by the Government of India to supervise genetic engineering activities.

Role:

• Evaluates the safety and validity of genetically modified (GM) research.
• Ensures the safe use of GM organisms in agriculture, medicine, and the environment.
• Regulates and monitors the release of GM organisms to prevent harmful or unforeseen effects.

Question 9.
Define Biopiracy.
Answer:
Biopiracy is the unauthorized exploitation or commercial use of a country’s biological resources and traditional knowledge without obtaining permission or providing fair compensation.

Question 10.
What are the main functions of Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)?
Answer:
Main Functions of Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR):

• Amplification of DNA
• Early diagnosis of diseases
• DNA fingerprinting
• Gene cloning and research
• Detection of genetic mutations

V. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is Gene Therapy? Illustrate it using the example of Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) deficiency.
Answer:

1. Gene therapy is a treatment method în which a normal functional gene is introduced into a patient’s cells to replace or compensate for a defective gene.
2. Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) deficiency is an inherited disorder caused by the absence of the ADA enzyme, which is essential for the normal functioning of the immune system. Its deficiency leads to severe immunodeficiency.
3. In this treatment, lymphocytes are collected from the patient’s blood, cultured in the laboratory, and a functional ADA gene is inserted into them using a retroviral vector. These modified cells are then transferred back into the patient’s body, where they produce the ADA enzyme and improve immune function.
4. Since lymphocytes have a limited lifespan, the therapy must be repeated at regular intervals. However, if the functional gene is introduced during the early developmental stage, a permanent cure may be possible.

Question 2.
How is genetically engineered insulin produced?
Answer:

1. Genetically engineered insulin is produced using recombinant DNA (rDNA) technology, which allows the large-scale production of human insulin identical to natural insulin.
2. This technology was developed by the Eli Lilly Company to overcome the disadvantages of animal-derived insulin.
3. Human insulin consists of two polypeptide chains (A and B) connected by disulphide bonds. In its precursor form (proinsulin), it contains an additional C-peptide, which must be removed to form active insulin.
4. The genes responsible for the A and B chains are synthesized separately.
5. These genes are inserted into plasmids of the bacterium Escherichia coli (E. coli), where the bacteria produce the A and B chains independently.
6. The two chains are then isolated, purified, and joined by disulfide bonds to produce functional human insulin.
7. This method yields safe, effective, and non-allergenic human insulin, eliminating the need for animal sources.

Question 3.
What are the applications of biotechnology in molecular diagnosis?
Answer:
Biotechnology plays a vital role in molecular diagnosis by enabling the early and accurate detection of diseases, even before symptoms appear, which is difficult with conventional diagnostic methods.

Applications of biotechnology in molecular diagnosis:

1. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR): Detects pathogens present in very small quantities by amplifying their nucleic acids. It is widely used for diagnosing infections like HTV and for identifying gene mutations associated with cancer and other genetic disorders.
2. Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA): Works on the principle of antigen-antibody interaction and helps detect specific antigens or antibodies for disease diagnosis.
3. Recombinant DNA technology: Facilitates precise diagnosis by analyzing genes and identifying abnormalities at the molecular level.
4. Nucleic acid probes (DNA/RNA probes): Detect specific or mutated genes through hybridization techniques, aiding in the diagnosis of genetic diseases.

Question 4.
Write a short note on the concept of Biopiracy.
Answer:

1. Biopiracy is the unauthorized use or commercial exploitation of biological resources and traditional knowledge without obtaining permission or providing compensation to the country or community that owns them.
2. A global imbalance exists where developed nations possess advanced technology but limited biodiversity, whereas developing nations are rich in biodiversity and traditional knowledge, making them more vulnerable to exploitation.
3. Traditional knowledge is often used to develop commercial products, saving time and cost, but the original knowledge holders frequently receive no recognition or benefits.
4. Well-known examples include attempts to patent Basmati rice, Neem, and Turmeric, even though these have been traditionally used in India.
5. To prevent such misuse, many countries have introduced laws and patent regulations that promote fair benefit-sharing and protect biological resources and indigenous knowledge.

Question 5.
Explain the patent issues related to Basmati rice, Turmeric, and Neem.
Answer:
1. The patent disputes involving Basmati rice, Turmeric, and Neem are classic examples of biopiracy, where biological resources and traditional knowledge were used without proper authorization or benefit sharing.

2. In the case of Basmati rice, a U.S. company obtained a patent for a “new” variety derived from traditional Indian Basmati. This raised concerns for Indian farmers and exporters, and many of the patent claims were later challenged and withdrawn.

3. A patent was granted for the wound-healing property of turmeric, despite its traditional medicinal use in India for centuries. The patent was later cancelled after evidence of prior traditional knowledge was presented. Similarly, patents were granted for the pesticidal properties of Neem, although its use in India was well established. These patents were also revoked following legal challenges.

VI. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Write an essay on the benefits of transgenic animals.
Answer:

1. Transgenic animals are animals whose DNA has been artificially modified by introducing and expressing a foreign gene.
2. Many transgenic animals, such as rats, rabbits, pigs, and sheep, have been developed, although more than 95% are mice because they are easy to handle and widely used in research.
3. They play an important role in scientifiè research, medicine, and human welfare.

Benefits of Transgenics
1. Study of Normal Physiology and development:

• Helps scientists understand how genes regulate normal body functions and development.
• Modified genes enable researchers to study growth, metabolism, and the function of specific genes.

2. Study of Human Diseases:

• Used as models for diseases such as cancer, cystic fibrosis, rheumatoid arthritis, and Alzheimer’s disease.
• Help researchers understand disease mechanisms and develop improved treatments.

3. Production of Biological Products (Pharming)

• Used to produce valuable human proteins in milk, blood, or eggs.
• Example: The transgenic cow Rosie produced milk enriched with human alpha-lactalbumin.
• Human proteins such as α-1-antitrypsin can also be produced for treating emphysema.

4. Vaccine Safety Testing:

• Used to evaluate the safety of vaccines before they are tested in humans.
• Example: Transgenic mice are widely used in polio vaccine testing.

5. Chemical Safety (Toxicity) Testing :

• Used to assess the harmful effects of chemicals, drugs, and environmental pollutants.
• Their increased sensitivity helps researchers evaluate toxicity more quickly and accurately.

Question 2.
Explain ethical issues related to genetically modified organisms (GMOs).
Answer:
Genetically Modified Organisms (GMOs) raise several ethical concerns related to human intervention in nature, environmental safety, and the responsible use of biological resources.

Ethical Issues:

1. Need for Regulation and Ethical Oversight: Genetic modification should be carefully regulated and ethically evaluated because it may produce unpredictable effects on ecosystems.
2. Environmental Concerns: GMOs may disturb ecological balance and reduce biodiversity if released without proper monitoring.
3. Government Regulation: The Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (GEAC) evaluates the safety and approval of GM research and GM organisms before public use.
4. Intellectual Property Issues: Patenting biological resources raises concerns regarding ownership, benefit sharing, and fairness, especially when based on traditional knowledge.
5. Example of Patent Disputes: Attempts to patent Basmati rice, Turmeric, and Neem highlight important ethical and legal concerns regarding indigenous knowledge.
6. Biopiracy: The unauthorized use of biological resources without compensation exploits the biodiversity and traditional knowledge of developing countries and emphasizes the need for international protection and equitable benefit sharing.

I. Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
What is a significant advantage of recombinant therapeutics over products isolated from non-human sources?
1. They are less effective.
2. They induced unwanted immunological responses.
3. They do not induce unwanted immunological responses.
4. They are more expensive to produce.
Answer:
3. They do not induce unwanted immunological responses.

Question 2.
Why was insulin from animal sources is less ideal for humans use.
1. It was less effective and caused allergic reactions.
2. It was more effective than human insulin.
3. It was not available in sufficient quantities.
4. It was administered orally.
Answer:
1. It was less effective and caused allergic reactions.

Question 3.
What is the function of the C-peptide in insulin synthesis?
1. It is a component of mature insulin.
2. It is removed during the conversion of proinsulin into insulin.
3. It joins the A and B chains together.
4. It is added to mature insulin for stability.
Answer:
2. It is removed during the conversion of proinsulin into insulin.

Question 4.
What is the primary goal of gene therapy
1. To replace diseased organs with healthy organs.
2. To introduce a functional gene to compensate for a defective gene.
3. To eliminate the defective gene from the body.
4. To improve physical performance in healthy individuals.
Answer:
2. To introduce a functional gene to compensate for a defective gene.

Question 5.
What is the role of the adenosine deaminase (ADA) enzyme in the body?
1. It regulates blood sugar concentration.
2. It is essential for the proper functioning of the immune system.
3. It supports muscle growth.
4. It helps in digestion.
Answer:
2. It is essential for the proper functioning of the immune system.

Question 6.
Assertion: PCR is used for the early diagnosis of HIV infection and cancer in suspected patients.
Reason: PCR amplifies nucleic acids to detect very low concentrations of pathogens before the appearance of symptoms.
1. Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason correctly explains Assertion.
2. Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason does not explain Assertion.
3. Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
4. Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
Answer:
1. Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason correctly explains Assertion.

Question 7.
Assertion: Genetically engineered insulin is produced using recombinant DNA technology in bacteria such as E. coli.
Reason: The insulin produced is identical to human insulin and does not trigger unwanted immune responses.
1. Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason correctly explains Assertion.
2. Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation.
3. Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
4. Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
Answer:
1. Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason correctly explains Assertion.

Question 8.
How does the milk from the transgenic cow Rosie benefit human babies?
1. It is less expensive than natural cow’s milk.
2. It contains higher levels of insulin.
3. It is nutritionally more balanced than normal cow’s milk.
4. It prevents allergic reactions in infants.
Answer:
3. It is nutritionally more balanced than normal cow’s milk.

Question 9.
What advantage do transgenic animals provide in toxicity testing compared to non-transgenic animals?
1. They require less exposure to toxic substances.
2. The results are obtained in a shorter time.
3. They are resistant to toxic substances.
4. They produce their own antibodies.
Answer:
2. The results are obtained in a shorter time.

Question 10.
What defines a transgenic animal?
1. An animal developed through selective breeding for improved traits.
2. An animal whose DNA has been modified to express a foreign gene.
3. An animal cloned from another species.
4. An animal with naturally occurring genetic mutations
Answer:
2. An animal whose DNA has been modified to express a foreign gene.

Question 11.
What is the primary purpose of organizations like GEAC (Genetic Engineering Approval Committee) in India?
1. To encourage unrestricted genetic modification of organisms.
2. To evaluate the safety and validity of GM research and GM organisms for public use.
3. To approve patents for all genetic engineering projects.
4. To prohibit all forms of genetic modification.
Answer:
2. To evaluate the safety and validity of GM research and GM organisms for public use.

Question 12.
What is biopiracy?
1. The legal use of biological resources with authorization.
2. The unauthorized use of biological resources without providing compensation.
3. The development of new biological resources by indigenous communities.
4. The exchange of traditional knowledge among different countries
Answer:
2. The unauthorized use of biological resources without providing compensation.

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. Insulin consists two polypeptide chains, A and B, linked by ………………….. bridges.
Answer:
Disulphide

2. In humans, insulin is synthesized as a ………………………. , that requires processing to become mature.
Answer:
Pro-hormone

3. ELISA identifies infections based on the principle of ……………………… interaction.
Answer:
Antigen – Antibody

4. The first clinical gene therapy was performed in 1990 to treat a 4-year-old girl with …………………….. deficiency.
Answer:
Adenosine deaminase (ADA)

5. In ADA deficiency treatment, a functional ADA cDNA is introduced into ………………………using a retroviral vector before being returned to the patient.
Answer:
Lymphocytes.

6. The human protein α – 1 – antitrypsin produced by transgenic animals is used to treat …………………. .
Answer:
Emphysema

7. The Indian Government has established the ……………………………. to regulate the safety and approval of GM organisms.
Answer:
GEAC (Genetic Engineering Approval Committee)

8. In 1997, an American company obtained patent rights on …………………………….. rice through the US Patent and Trademark Office.
Answer:
Basmati

9. India is home to an estimated …………………………. varieties of rice, showcasing its rich agricultural diversity.
Answer:
2,00,000

10. Patents on products like turmeric and neem are based on India’s traditional ……………………… medicines.
Answer:
Herbal.

III. One Word Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is the name of the company that prepared DNA Sequences for human influence chains in 1983?
Answer:
EliLilly

Question 2.
Which bacterium was used to produce human insulin chains A and B?
Answer:
E. coli

Question 3.
What vector was used to introduce functional ADA cDNA into lymphocytes?
Answer:
Retroviral vector

Question 5.
What assay is based on antigen-antibody interaction for pathogen detection?
Answer:
Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)

Question 6.
What human protein is in kosie’s milk for better nutrition?
Answer:
Alpha- lactalbumin

Question 7.
What organization in India approves GM research and its safety?
Answer:
Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (GEAC)

Question 8.
What term refers the unauthorized use of bio-resources without compensation?
Answer:
Biopiracy

Question 9.
In which year did an American company get a patent on Basmati rice?
Answer:
1997

Question 10.
What traditional Indian plants has faced patent attempts?
Answer:
Neem and Turmeric

Objective Questions

Question 1.
Biotechnology involves using living organisms or their components to produce
1. Medicines and products
2. Only food
3. Only energy
4. Only enzymes
Answer:
1. Medicines and products

Question 2.
Genetic engineering refers to the direct manipulation of:
1. Proteins
2. DNA
3. Lipids
4. Carbohydrates
Answer:
2. DNA

Question 3.
Which organism is most commonly used in genetic engineering?
1. Human
2. E. coli
3. Frog
4. Virus
Answer:
2. E. coli

Question 4.
Recombinant DNA technology leads to the formation of:
1. Natural DNA
2. Hybrid DNA
3. Protein only
4. Mutation only
Answer:
2. Hybrid DNA

Question 5.
Which enzyme is used to cut DNA at specific sites?
1. Ligase
2. Polymerase
3. Restriction enzyme
4. Helicase
Answer:
3. Restriction enzyme

Question 6.
DNA ligase plays a role in :
1. Cutting DNA
2. Joining DNA fragments
3. Replication
4. Transcription
Answer:
2. Joining DNA fragments

Question 7.
Which vector is used to carry foreign DNA?
1. Protein
2. Plasmid
3. Lipid
4. Hormone
Answer:
2. Plasmid

Question 8.
Which bacterium is commonly used for insulin production?
1. Bacillus
2. E.coli
3. Streptococcus
4. Lactobacillus
Answer:
2. E.coli

Question 9.
Human insulin produced through biotechnology is known as
1. Recombinant insulin
2. Natural insulin
3. Artificial enzyme
4. Vaccine
Answer:
1. Recombinant insulin

Question 10.
Gene therapy is primarily used for the treatment of:
1. Environmental issues
2. Genetic disorders
3. Infectious diseases only
4. Food problems
Answer:
2. Genetic disorders

Question 11.
ADA deficiency is treated using :
1. Gene therapy
2. Vaccination
3. Antibiotics
4. Surgery
Answer:
1. Gene therapy

Question 12.
Transgenic animals are those that contain :
1. Foreign DNA
2. Extra protein
3. Extra lipids
4. Extra cells
Answer:
1. Foreign DNA

Question 13.
Bt cotton is resistant against:
1. Bacteria
2. Fungi
3. Insects
4. Viruses
Answer:
3. Insects

Question 14.
Golden rice is enriched with :
1. Protein
2. Vitamin A
3. Iron
4. Calcium
Answer:
2. Vitamin A

Question 15.
PCR is mainly used to:
1. Cut DNA
2. Amplify DNA
3. Join DNA
4. Mutate DNA
Answer:
2. Amplify DNA

Question 16.
DNA fingerprinting mainly depends on :
1. RNA
2. DNA polymorphism
3. Enzymes
4. Proteins
Answer:
2. DNA polymorphism

Question 17.
Which crop is a genetically modified crop?
1. Wheat
2. Rice only
3. Barley
4. Bt cotton
Answer:
4. Bt cotton

Question 18.
Vaccine production is an important application of:
1. Anatomy
2. Biotechnology
3. Ecology
4. Physiology
Answer:
2. Biotechnology

Question 19.
Biopiracy refers to:
1. Mutation
2. Illegal use of bio-resources
3. Cloning
4. DNA copying
Answer:
2. Illegal use of bio-resources

Question 20.
Transgenic animals are widely used for:
1. Testing drugs
2. Studying diseases
3. Research
4. All of these
Answer:
4. All of these

Question 21.
Which enzyme is responsible for joining DNA fragments?
1. Polymerase
2. Restriction enzyme
3. Ligase
4. Helicase
Answer:
3. Ligase

Question 22.
Recombinant DNA is formed by combining DNA obtained from:
1. Different organisms
2. Same species only
3. Same organism
4. Same cell
Answer:
1. Different organisms

Question 23.
Cloning mainly results in the production of:
1. Hormones
2. Similar organisms
3. Proteins
4. Mutations
Answer:
2. Similar organisms

Question 24.
Insulin belongs to the category of
1. Lipid
2. Protein hormone
3. Enzyme
4. Vitamin
Answer:
2. Protein hormone

Question 25.
Which organ naturally secretes insulin in humans?
1. Kidney
2. Pancreas
3. Liver
4. Heart
Answer:
2. Pancreas

Question 26.
What is the major advantage of recombinant insulin compared to animal insulin?
1. Less stable
2. Cheaper
3. Easily available
4. Identical to human insulin
Answer:
4. Identical to human insulin

Question 27.
Gene therapy aims to treat diseases by:
1. Destroying cells
2. Replacing defective genes
3. Increasing enzymes
4. Removing proteins
Answer:
2. Replacing defective genes

Question 28.
ADA deficiency mainly affects which system?
1. Nervous system
2. Immune system
3. Digestive system
4. Circulatory system
Answer:
2. Immune system

Question 29.
Transgenic animals are produced by introducing:
1. Enzymes
2. Foreign genes
3. Extra cells
4. Extra proteins
Answer:
2. Foreign genes

Question 30.
The Bt gene inserted into crop plants provides protection against:
1. Viruses
2. Bacteria
3. Insects
4. Fungi
Answer:
3. Insects

Question 31.
Bt toxin becomes active inside the insect gut because of:
1. Acidic pH
2. High temperature
3. Neutral pH
4. Alkaline pH
Answer:
1. Acidic pH

Question 32.
Golden Rice has been genetically modified to produce :
1. Calcium
2. Protein
3. Vitamin A precursor
4. Iron
Answer:
3. Vitamin A precursor

Question 33.
The primary objective behind developing Golden Rice is to overcome:
1. Iron deficiency
2. Vitamin A deficiency
3. Protein deficiency
4. Calcium deficiency
Answer:
2. Vitamin A deficiency

Question 34.
DNA fingerprinting is mainly used for identifying:
1. Species
2. Organs
3. Cells
4. Individuals
Answer:
4. Individuals

Question 35.
DNA fingerprinting is based on differences in:
1. RNA
2. DNA sequences
3. Enzymes
4. Proteins
Answer:
2. DNA sequences

Question 36.
Restriction enzymes recognize particular DNA regions known as:
1. Genes
2. Recognition sites
3. Codons
4. Operons
Answer:
2. Recognition sites

Question 37.
Which enzyme is responsible for DNA synthesis during PCR?
1. Join DNA
2. Destroy DNA
3. Cut DNA
4. Synthesize DNA
Answer:
4. Synthesize DNA

Question 38.
PCR involves repeated cycles of:
1. Replication only
2. Elongation
3. Mutation
4. Digestion
Answer:
2. Elongation

Question 39.
The gene transferred into a host organism is called :
1. Vector
2. Enzyme
3. Protein
4. Insert
Answer:
4. Insert

Question 40.
Plasmids are naturally present in:
1. Animals
2. Plants
3. Bacteria
4. Fungi
Answer:
3. Bacteria

Question 41.
What is the main function of a cloning vector?
1. Produce enzymes
2. Destroy DNA
3. Carry foreign DNA
4. Mutate genes
Answer:
3. Carry foreign DNA

Question 42.
The Ti plasmid is most commonly used in genetic engineering of:
1. Bacteria
2. Fungi
3. Animals
4. Plants
Answer:
4. Plants

Question 43.
Agrobacterium tumefaciens is mainly used to transfer genes into:
1. Humans
2. Plants
3. Viruses
4. Animals
Answer:
2. Plants

Question 44.
What is the purpose of a selectable marker in a vector?
1. Replication
2. Identifying transformed cells
3. Joining DNA
4. Cutting DNA
Answer:
2. Identifying transformed cells

Question 45.
Recombinant DNA technology mainly involves:
1. Protein synthesis
2. DNA recombination
3. DNA destruction
4. Mutation
Answer:
2. DNA recombination

Question 46.
Which process follows the insertion of DNA into a vector?
1. Replication
2. Mutation
3. Transformation into host
4. Digestion
Answer:
3. Transformation into host

Question 47.
Bt toxin is activated in the insect gut because of:
1. Temperature
2. Alkaline pH
3. Neutral pH
4. Acidic pH
Answer:
2. Alkaline pH

Question 48.
The process of introducing foreign DNA into a host cell is known as:
1. Replication
2. Transformation
3. Transcription
4. Translation
Answer:
2. Transformation

Question 49.
Short Tandem Repeats (STRs) are mainly used in:
1. Mutation
2. DNA fingerprinting
3. Cloning
4. PCR
Answer:
2. DNA fingerprinting

Question 50.
The insulin gene is introduced into:
1. Plant
2. Vims
3. Human cell
4. Bacteria
Answer:
4. Bacteria

Question 51.
Bioreactors are mainly used for:
1. Mutation
2. Large-scale production
3. DNA cutting
4. Digestion
Answer:
2. Large-scale production

Question 52.
Biopiracy refers to the unauthorized exploitation of:
1. Chemicals
2. Energy
3. Biological resources
4. Machines
Answer:
3. Biological resources

Question 53.
DNA ligase functions to:
1. Replicate DNA
2. Joining DNA fragments
3. Mutating DNA
4. Cutting DNA
Answer:
2. Joining DNA fragments

Question 54.
In PCR, primers are mainly required to:
1. Destroy DNA
2. Cut DNA
3. Start DNA synthesis
4. Join DNA
Answer:
3. Start DNA synthesis

Question 55.
Bt cotton is developed for the production of:
1. Protein toxin
2. Hormone
3. Enzyme
4. Lipid
Answer:
1. Protein toxin

Question 56.
Gene therapy is primarily useful in treating:
1. Metabolic diseases
2. Nutritional diseases
3. Infectious diseases
4. Genetic disorders
Answer:
4. Genetic disorders

Question 57.
DNA fingerprinting is based on variation in:
1. Proteins
2. DNA sequences
3. Lipids
4. RNA
Answer:
2. DNA sequences

Question 58.
Recombinant human insulin does not trigger allergic reactions because it is:
1. Artificial
2. Synthetic
3. Identical to human insulin
4. Mutated
Answer:
3. Identical to human insulin

Question 59.
During transformation, DNA is introduced into:
1. Host cell
2. Vector
3. Protein
4. Enzyme
Answer:
1. Host cell

Question 60.
The primary objective of biotechnology in agriculture is to: ‘
1. Enhance quality
2. Increase yield
3. Improve resistance
4. All of these
Answer:
4. All of these

Question 61.
Which enzyme is commonly used in PCR?
1. Restriction enzyme
2. Taq polymerase
3. Helicase
4. Ligase
Answer:
2. Taq polymerase

Question 62.
The inserted gene in a plasmid is called a:
1. Protein
2. Marker
3. Insert
4. Vector
Answer:
3. Insert

Question 63.
Recombinant DNA technology is also known as:
1. Cloning
2. Mutation
3. Isolation
4. Genetic engineering
Answer:
4. Genetic engineering

Question 64.
Transgenic plants are resistant to:
1. Diseases
2. Environmental stress
3. Pests
4. All of These
Answer:
4. All of These

Question 65.
The major ethical issue associated with biotechnology is:
1. Mutation
2. Isolation
3. Growth
4. Biopiracy
Answer:
4. Biopiracy

Question 66.
The success of recombinant DNA technology depends on:
1. Host cells
2. Enzymes
3. Vectors
4. All of these
Answer:
4. All of these

Question 67.
Biotechnology applications improve:
1. Industry
2. Agriculture
3. Health
4. All of these
Answer:
4. All of these

Question 68.
The overall objective of biotechnology is to develop:
1. Harmful agents
2. Useful products
3. Mutations
4. Isolation
Answer:
2. Useful products

For systematic learning, students can include AP Inter 2nd Year English Grammar with Answers and One Word Substitution in English Inter 1st Year in their daily study routine.

AP Inter 2nd Year English One Word Substitution with Answers

A one-word substitution is a single word that replaces a longer phrase or clause while preserving the meaning and register. One-word substitutions make English more concise, precise, and stylistically polished. For example, instead of saying “a person who loves books” you can say “bibliophile”.

Different Groups of One-Word Substitutions :

G – 1 : Different Types of Doctors

G – 2: Fields of Study

G – 3: Types of Government & Rules

G-4: Types of Killings

G – 5: Lovers & Haters

G – 6: Travellers & Migrants

G – 7: People’s Roles & Characters

G – 8: Time & Sequence Words

G – 9: Miscellaneous Important Words

Practice

In each of the following questions, choose the most suitable “One-Word” for the given expressions:

Question 1.
A form of government ruled by a king or queen :
a) Democracy
b) Monarchy
c) Oligarchy
Answer:
b) Monarchy

Question 2.
The deliberate killing of a large group of people:
a) Suicide
b) Homicide
c) Genocide
Answer:
c) Genocide

Question 3.
The act of killing oneself:
a) Homicide
b) Suicide
c) Parricide
Answer:
b) Suicide

Question 4.
A government ruled by religious leaders:
a) Bureaucracy
b) Theocracy
c) Plutocracy
Answer:
b) Theocracy

Question 5.
The killing of a king:
a) Fratricide
b) Regicide
c) Genocide
Answer:
b) Regicide

Question 6.
A government ruled by a small group of powerful people:
a) Monarchy
b) Anarchy
c) Oligarchy
Answer:
c) Oligarchy

Question 7.
The killing of one’s father:
a) Patricide
b) Matricide
c) Infanticide
Answer:
a) Patricide

Question 8.
A government with no law or order:
a) Technocracy
b) Aristocracy
c) Anarchy
Answer:
c) Anarchy

Question 9.
The killing of one’s sister:
a) Sororicide
b) Sororicide
c) Fratricide
Answer:
b) Sororicide

Question 10.
A government ruled by the people:
a) Democracy
b) Theocracy
c) Autocracy
Answer:
a) Democracy

Exercise

In each of the following questions, choose the most suitable “One-Word” for the given expressions:

Question 1.
A government ruled by the noble class :
a) Aristocracy
b) Plutocracy
c) Bureaucracy
Answer:
a) Aristocracy

Question 2.
A person who loves books :
a) Bibliophile
b) Bibliophobe
c) Philatelist
Answer:
a) Bibliophile

Question 3.
A person who hates mankind :
a) Philanthropist
b) Misanthrope
c) Bibliophile
Answer:
b) Misanthrope

Question 4.
One who hates men :
a) Misandrist
b) Misanthrope
c) Philanthropist
Answer:
a) Misandrist

Question 5.
A person who moves from place to
a) Nomad
b) Expatriate
c) Itinerary
Answer:
a) Nomad

Question 6.
Happening too soon :
a) Contemporary
b) Eternal
c) Premature
Answer:
c) Premature

Question 7.
A person who loves technology :
a) Technophobe
b) Technophile
c) Misanthrope
Answer:
b) Technophile

Question 8.
A journey to a sacred place :
a) Pilgrimage
b) Expatriate
c) Refugee
Answer:
a) Pilgrimage

Question 9.
A person who fears or hates technology :
a) Bibliophile
b) Technophile
c) Technophobe
Answer:
c) Technophobe

Question 10.
A person who leaves his country to settle elsewhere:
a) Emigrant
b) Nomad
c) Voyager
Answer:
a) Emigrant

Question 11.
One who collects coins
a) Numismatist
b) Philanthropist
c) Technophile
Answer:
a) Numismatist

Question 12.
To cause things to happen at the same time :
a) Ephemeral
b) Interim
c) Synchronize
Answer:
c) Synchronize

Question 13.
One who works for the welfare of others :
a) Misanthrope
b) Philanthropist
c) Misogynist
Answer:
b) Philanthropist

Question 14.
One who hates women :
a) Misandrist
b) Misogynist
c) Technophile
Answer:
b) Misogynist

Question 15.
One who dislikes books :
a) Bibliophobe
b) Bibliophile
c) Numismatist
Answer:
a) Bibliophobe

Question 16.
One who collects stamps :
a) Numismatist
b) Philatelist
c) Bibliophobe
Answer:
b) Philatelist

Question 17.
A government ruled by one person with absolute power :
a) Democracy
b) Autocracy
c) Bureaucracy
Answer:
b) Autocracy

Question 18.
A person who travels widely :
a) Globetrotter
b) Vagabond
c) Immigrant
Answer:
a) Globetrotter

Question 19.
A mild word used instead of a harsh one :
a) Euphemism
b) Neologism
c) Polyglot
Answer:
a) Euphemism

Question 20.
A person who goes on a long voyage :
a) Nomad
b) Voyager
c) Refugee
Answer:
b) Voyager

Question 21.
A person who knows two languages :
a) Polyglot
b) Bilingual
c) Amphibian
Answer:
b) Bilingual

Question 22.
A person living outside his native country :
a) Emigrant
b) Immigrant
c) Expatriate
Answer:
c) Expatriate

Question 23.
A government controlled by officials or departments :
a) Monarchy
b) Plutocracy
c) Bureaucracy
Answer:
c) Bureaucracy

Question 24.
A person who comes to live in a foreign country :
a) Emigrant
b) Immigrant
c) Refugee
Answer:
b) Immigrant

Question 25.
A detailed plan of a journey :
a) Voyager
b) Nomad
c) Itinerary
Answer:
c) Itinerary

Question 26.
A person forced to leave his country :
a) Immigrant
b) Expatriate
c) Refugee
Answer:
c) Refugee

Question 27.
The killing of an infant :
a) Infanticide
b) Genocide
c) Parricide
Answer:
a) Infanticide

Question 28.
An expert judge of taste :
a) Sycophant
b) Charlatan
c) Connoisseur
Answer:
c) Connoisseur

Question 29.
A person indifferent to pleasure or pain :
a) Stoic
b) Epicure
c) Zealot
Answer:
a) Stoic

Question 30.
One who attacks established beliefs :
a) Zealot
b) Iconoclast
c) Sycophant
Answer:
b) Iconoclast

Question 31.
A person who knows many languages :
a) Polyglot
b) Bilingual
c) Trilingual
Answer:
a) Polyglot

Question 32.
A person devoted to pleasure :
a) Stoic
b) Epicure
c) Ascetic
Answer:
b) Epicure

Question 33.
A person with excessive and irrational zeal :
a) Fanatic
b) Connoisseur
c) Ascetic
Answer:
a) Fanatic

Question 34.
Knowing everything :
a) Omnipotent
b) Omniscient
c) Neologism
Answer:
b) Omniscient

Question 35.
Arranged for the present time only :
a) Provisional
b) Eternal
c) Anachronism
Answer:
a) Provisional

Question 36.
One who pretends to be virtuous :
a) Hypocrite
b) Charlatan
c) Stoic
Answer:
a) Hypocrite

Question 37.
A newly coined word :
a) Euphemism
b) Neologism
c) Anachronism
Answer:
b) Neologism

Question 38.
Happening after death :
a) Posthumous
b) Interim
c) Ephemeral
Answer:
a) Posthumous

Question 39.
A person who practices strict self-discipline :
a) Ascetic
b)Fanatic
c) Connoisseur
Answer:
a) Ascetic

Question 40.
Belonging to the same period of time :
a) Contemporary
b) Provisional
c) Anachronism
Answer:
a) Contemporary

Question 41.
Able to use both hands equally well :
a) Ambidextrous
b) Amphibian
c) Omnipresent
Answer:
a) Ambidextrous

Question 42.
Lasting for a short time :
a) Eternal
b) Ephemeral
c) Contemporary
Answer:
b) Ephemeral

Question 43.
A government ruled by the rich :
a) Oligarchy
b) Plutocracy
c) Technocracy
Answer:
b) Plutocracy

Question 44.
Happening at the same time :
a) Posthumous
b) Premature
c) Simultaneous
Answer:
c) Simultaneous

Question 45.
Lasting forever :
a) Eternal
b) Ephemeral
c) Interim
Answer:
a) Eternal

Question 46.
An animal that lives both on land and in water :
a) Euphemism
b) Omnipotent
c) Amphibian
Answer:
c) Amphibian

Question 47.
The deliberate killing of a large group of people :
a) Homicide
b) Suicide
c) Genocide
Answer:
c) Genocide

Question 48.
Having unlimited power :
a) Omnipotent
b) Omniscient
c) Omnipresent
Answer:
a) Omnipotent

Question 49.
A wanderer without a home :
a) Nomad
b) Vagabond
c) Globetrotter
Answer:
b) Vagabond

Question 50.
Present everywhere :
a) Omniscient
b) Euphemism
c) Omnipresent
Answer:
c) Omnipresent