AP Inter 2nd Year

Regular practice with AP Inter 2nd Year Chemistry Study Material Chapter 7 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers Questions and Answers helps students stay prepared for examinations.

AP Inter 2nd Year Chemistry 7th Lesson Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Glycerol is a:
1) dihydric alcohol
2) monohydric alcohol
3) hexahydric alcohol
4) trihydric alcohol
Answer:
4) trihydric alcohol
Count number of-OH groups in glycerol. It has three —OH groups attached to different carbons.Alcohol classification depends on number of —OH groups. Trihydric alcohol

Question 2.
Primary and secondary alcohols on action of red-hot copper give
1) aldehydes and ketones respectively
2) ketones and aldehydes respectively
3) only aldehydes
4) only ketones
Answer:
1) aldehydes and ketones respectively
Red-hot Cu causes dehydrogenation (removal of H₂).
Primary alcohol → aldehyde. Secondary alcohol → ketone. Because of different carbon environments. Aldehydes and ketones respectively

Question 3.
Which of the following can work as a dehydrating agent for alcohols?
1) Conc. H₂SO₄
2) Anhydrous Al₂O₃
3) H₃PO₄
4) All of these
Answer:
4) All of these
Dehydrating agents remove water. Cone. H₂SO₄, Al₂O₃, and H₃PO₄ all promote elimination of water. So all act as dehydrating agents.

Question 4.
Which of the following shows strong hydrogen bonding?
1) Ethyl amine
2) Ammonia
3) Ethyl alcohol
4) Diethyl ether
Answer:
3) Ethyl alcohol
Strong hydrogen bonding requires -OH group (more polar than -NH).
Alcohols form stronger H-bonds than amines/ethers.

Question 5.
What is the IUPAC name of the compound given below?

1) 5, 5-dimethyl-hexan-2-ol
2) 5,5,5-trimethyl-pentan-2-ol
3) 2,2-dimethyl-hexan-5-ol
4) 2,2-dimethyl-pentan-5-ol
Answer:
1) 5, 5-dimethyl-hexan-2-ol
Choose longest chain containing -OH. Number from end nearest to -OH.
Identify substituents correctly. Applying rules → hexane backbone, -OH at C-2, two methyl at C-5. 5,5-dimethyl-hexan-2-ol

Question 6.
Sodium phenoxide on reaction with carbon dioxide followed by acidification gives
1) benzoic acid
2) salicylic acid
3) phenylacetic acid
4) phthalicacid
Answer:
2) salicylic acid
Sodium phenoxide + CO₂ → Kolbe’s reaction.
CO₂ attaches at ortho position → after acidification → salicylic acid

Question 7.
What is the major product formed when ethanol is dehydrated with concentrated H₂SO₄ at 413K? .
1) Ethene
2) Methoxymethane
3) Methoxyethane
4) Ethoxyethane
Answer:
4) Ethoxyethane
Dehydration of alcohol depends on temperature: 413 K → ether formation (intermolecular) 443 K → alkene. So ethanol gives Ethoxyethane at 413 K .

Question 8.
The reaction between tert-Butyl chloride and sodium ethoxide gives
1) tert-butyl ethyl ether
2) tert-butyl methyl ether
3) 2-methylprop-1-ene
4) butene
Answer:
3) 2-methylprop-1-ene
tert-butyl chloride forms stable carbocation → elimination favored.
Strong base (ethoxide) → E₂ elimination → alkene formation Gives most substituted alkene. 2-methylprop-1 -ene

Question 9.
One molecule of dialkyl ether produces how many molecules of alkyl halides with excess of halogen acid?
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Answer:
2) 2
Ether + excess HX → cleavage of both C-O bonds (2 molecules)

Question 10.
On heating aqueous solution of benzene dia/onium chloride, which of the following is formed?
1) benzene
2) chlorobenzene
3) phenol
4) aniline
Answer:
3) phenol
Benzene diazonium salt + water (heat) → hydrolysis.
\(\mathrm{N}_2^{+}\) replaced by -OH group. Forms phenol

Question 11.
When phenol is treated with excess bromine water it gives
1) m-bromophenol
2) o- and p-bromophenol
3) 2,4-dibromophenol
4) 2,4,6-tribromophenol
Answer:
4) 2,4,6-tribromophenol
Phenol is strongly activating (-OH group). Directs substitution to ortho & para positions.
Excess Br₂ → substitution at 2,4,6 positions. 2,4,6-tribromophenol

Question 12.
The compound obtained by the reaction of ethene with diborane followed by hydrolysis with alkaline H₂O₂ is
1) ethanol
2) propanol
3) ethanal
4) triethyl bromide
Answer:
1) ethanol
Reaction is hydroboration-oxidation: Alkene +. diborane → alcohol (anti-Markovnikov addition)
Ethene gives ethanol (-OH adds to less substituted carbon).

Question 13.
Which of the following is formed when phenol is exposed to air?
1) Benzoquinone
2) Benzyl quinone
3) Acetophenone
4) Benzene
Answer:
1) Benzoquinone
Phenol on exposure to air gets oxidized slowly. Forms quinone (benzoquinone).

Question 14.
The alcohol which does not react with Lucas reagent at room temperature is
1) isobutyl alcohol
2) n-butanol
3) tert-butyl alcohol
4) sec-butyl alcohol
Answer:
2) n-butanol
Lucas test: 3° alcohol → immediate reaction. 2° alcohol → slow. 1 ° alcohol → no reaction at room temp, n-butanol is primary alcohol.

Question 15.
Which statement from the following is true?
1) During dehydration reaction H₂O molecule is added to reactant.
2) Lucas test is used for detection of ethers.
3) During esterification OH^– from acid molecule and H⁺ from alcohol are removed.
4) During esterification H⁺ from acid molecule and OH^– from alcohol are removed.
Answer:
3) During esterification OH^– from acid molecule and H⁺ from alcohol are removed.
Esterification: Acid + Alcohol → Ester + Water. Water is formed by removal of: OH from acid.
H from alcohol. Check options carefully OH^– from acid and H⁺ from alcohol are removed

II. Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
Isopropyl benzene is commonly called ________.
Answer:
cumene.

Question 2.
Boiling points of alcohols and phenols are higher in comparison to other classes of compounds due to __________.
Answer:
intermolecular hydrogen bonding

Question 3.
Alcohols and phenols react with carboxylic acids to form __________.
Answer:
esters

Question 4.
Lucas reagent is _________
Answer:
Cone. HCl/ZnCl₂ (anhydrous)

Question 5.
On treating phenol with chloroform in the presence of sodium hydroxide, salicylaldehyde is formed. This reaction is known as ___________.
Answer:
Reimer-Tiemann reaction

III. One Word Answer Questions

Question 1.
Phenol on heating with zinc dust gives a compound X. What is X?
Answer:
Phenol on heating with zinc dust gives Benzene (C₆H₆)

Question 2.
When an alkyl halide is allowed to react with sodium alkoxide, ether is formed. What is the name given to this reaction?
Answer:
Williamson synthesis: Alkyl halide + sodium alkoxide → Ether (R’-X + R-O-Na → R-O-R’ + NaX)

Question 3.
In the preparation of phenol from cumene, what is the byproduct obtained?
Answer:
The byproduct obtained in the preparation of phenol from cumene is Acetone (CH₃COCH₃)

Question 4.
What is the HJPAC name of glycerol?
Answer:
IUPAC name of glycerol is Propane-1,2,3-triol.

Question 5.
Which class of compounds are obtained when alkenes react with water in the presence of acid as catalyst?
Answer:
Alkenes when react with water in the presence of acid as catalyst gives Alcohols.

IV. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain why propanol has higher boiling point than that of the hydrocarbon butane.
Answer:
The boiling point of propanol is higher because of the presence of intermolecular hydrogen bonding in the molecules. But, it is not present in butane due to the absence of polar -OH group.
The boiling point (391K) of propanol is more than that of butane (309K).

Question 2.
Alcohols are comparatively more soluble in water than hydrocarbons of comparable j molecular masses. Explain this fact.
Answer:
Alcohols can form H-bonds with water and break the H-bonds already existing between water molecules. Hence, they are soluble in water.
But hydrocarbons cannot form H-bonds with water and hence they are insoluble in water.

Question 3.
Give the reagents used for the preparation of phenol from chlorobenzene.
Answer:

Question 4.
Give the reagents used for the preparation of phenol from chlorobenzene.
Answer:
Phenol can be obtained by heating chlorobenzene in the presence of a catalyst, with 10% NaOH solution and HC1 at 350°C under 200-300 atm pressure.

Question 5.
Preparation of ethers by acid dehydration of secondary or tertiary alcohols is not a suitable method. Give reason.
Answer:
Ethers cannot be prepared by the dehydration of secondary (or) tertiary alcohols, because alkenes are formed easily in these reactions. This happens due to steric hinderance.

Question 6.
Write the mechanism of the reactions of HI with methoxymethane.
Answer:
The ether molecule is initially protonated by the halogen acid (HI) to form protonated ether.

The protonated ether is then attacked by the halide ion (I^–) which acts as nucleophile as follows:

Question 7.
Name the reagents used in the following- reactions:
i) Oxidation of primary alcohol to carboxylic acid
ii) Oxidation of primary alcohol to aldehyde
Answer:
i) Acidified KMnO₄(or)acidified K₂Cr₂O₇ is used in the oxidation of primary alcohol to carboxylic acid
ii) CrO₃ (or) pyridine chlorochromate (pcc) is used as a reagent in the oxidation of primary alcohol to aldehyde.

Question 8.
Write the equations for the following reactions
i) Broniination of phenol to 2.4,6-trihromophcnil
ii) Benzl alcohol to benzoic acid
Answer:
i) Bromination of phenol to 246-rihron1ophenol:
Phenol when treated with excess of aqueous bromine solution forms 2,4,6-tribromophenol.

ii) Benzl alcohol to benzoic acid:
Benzyl alcohol oxidises into Benzaldehyde and then to Benzoic acid in the presence of alkaline KMnO₄.

Question 9.
Identify the reactant needed to form t-butyi alcohol from acetone.
Answer:
CH₃MgBr (Methyl magnesium bromide) is needed to form t-butyl alcohol from acetone.

Question 10.
Write the struclures for the foIIoshig compounds
1) Ethoxy Ethane
2) Ethoxybutane
3) Phenoy ethane
Answer:
1) Elbow Elhane : C₂H₅ — O — C₂H₅
2) Ethow butane : C₂H₅ — O — CH₂ — CH₂ — CH₂ — CH₃
3) Pheuoy etliane or Elhoy henzene or Ethyl phcnyl ether : C₆H₅ — O — C₂H₅

V. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Give the equations for the preparation of phenol from Cumene.
Answer:
Cumene is the common name for Isopropylbenzene .
Preparation: When Cumene is oxidised in the presence of air, it is converted into cumene hydroperoxide. When treated with dilute acid, it is then converted into phenol and acetone.

Question 2.
Write the mechanism of hydration of ethene to yield ethanol.
Answer:
Ethene is converted into alcohol by direct addition of water in the presence of phosphoric Acid (H₃PO₄).

Mechanism(S_N¹): The mechanism of the reaction involves the following three steps:
Step 1: Protonation of alkene to form carbocation by electrophilic attack of H₃O⁺

Step 2: Nucleophilic attack of water on carbocation.

Step 3: Deprotonation to form an alcohol

Question 3.
Explain the acidic nature of phenols and compare with that of alcohols.
Answer:
I) Acidic nature of phenols: Phenols are weakly acidic
a) Phenols turn blue litmus to red
b) Phenols react with sodium metal and NaOH to form H₂ and H₂O.

II) Acidic nature of phenols Vs alcohols:
Phenols are relatively more acidic than alcohols and also water.
a) The hydroxyl group in phenol is directly attached to SP² carbon on benzene ring. The carbon acts as an electron withdrawing group and Phenol exhibits resonance.
In these structures oxygen carries positive charge. This oxygen attracts electron pair of O-H bond strongly towards itself and facilitates the release of H⁺ ion and C₆H₅O^–.
The formed phenoxide ion is more stable than phenol.

Question 4.
Write the products formed by the reduction and oxidation of phenol.
Answer:
a) Reduction: Phenols on distillation with zinc dust undergo reduction to form benzene

b) Oxidation: Phenol undergo oxidation with chromic acid to produce conjugated diketone which is known as p-benzoquinone.

Question 5.
Write the products of the following reactions.

Answer:

Question 6.
Draw the structures of all isomeric alcohols of molecular formula C₅H₁₂O and give their IUPAC names and classify them as primary, secondary, and tertiary alcohols.
Answer:
The structures, IUPAC names and the classification of all isomeric alcohols of molecular formula C₅H₁₂O are eight and follows as

Question 7.
Ethanol reacts with H₂SO₄ at 443K forms ethene while at 413 K it forms Ethoxy Ethane. Explain the mechanism.
Answer:
I) Formation of Ethene at 443K:
Ethanol undergoes dehydration when it is heated it with concentrated H₂SO₄ at 443 K..

S<sub>N¹ Mechanism: Dehydration of ethanol involves the following steps.
Step 1: Formation of protonated alcohol (oxonium ion)

Step 2: Formation of carbocation: It is the slowest step and hence it has become the rate determining step of the reaction.

Step 3: Formation of ethene by elimination of proton</sub>

II) Formation of ethoxy ethane at 413 K:
Ethanol is dehydrated to ethoxyethane in the presence of sulphuric acid at 413 K.

S_{N² Mechanism: The formation of ether is a nucleophilic bimolecular reaction and it involves the attack of alcohol molecule on a protonated alcohol, as indicated below}

Question 8.
While separating a mixture of ortho and para nitrophenols by steam distillation, name the isomer which will be steam volatile. Cke reason.
Answer:
The ortho and para isomers can be separated by steam distillation. The ortho nitro phenol is steam volatile due to intra molecular hydrogen bonding. The para-nìtrophenol is less volatile due to intermolecular hydrogen bonding which results in the association of molecules.
o- nitrophenol shows intra molecular hydrogen bonding. So, it is relatively more volatile than p-isomer.

p-nitrophenol shows inter molecular hydrogen bonding.

So, this is less volatile than 0-isomer.

Question 9.
Account for the statement: Alcohols boil at highest temperature than hydrocarbons and ethers of comparable molecular masses.
Answer:
Alcohols have intermolecular attractions due to intermolecular hydrogen bonds. This type of intermolecular hydrogen bonding do not exist in hydrocarbons and ethers. Hence alcohols boil at higher temperature than hydrocarbons and ethers of comparable molecular masses.

Question 10.
Explain why in anisole electrophilic substitution takes place at ortho and para positions and not at meta position.
Answer:
Anisole is the common name for Methoxy benzene
Structure of Anisole:

It is the example of alkyl-aryl ethers.
In anisole, Methoxy group (+M group) is electron releasing group and activates the benzene ring at ortho and para positions. Thus the aromatic ethers undergo electrophilic substitution in the benzene ring at the ortho and para positions.
Due to resonance electron density is more at ortho and para positions.
Hence Anisole exhibits electrophilic substitution at ortho and para positions.
Resonance structures of Anisole:

VII. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Illustrate hydroboration-oxidation reaction with a suitable example.
Answer:
Hydroboration-oxidation reaction: It is the addition of diborane to an alkene followed by
reaction with hydrogen peroxide (H₂O₂) in the presence of OH^– giving an alcohol.
Ex: Alkene reacts with Diborane [B₂H₆ = (BH₃)₂] to give trialkyl borane as addition product. This is oxidised to alcohol by hydrogen peroxide in the presence of aqueous sodium hydroxide.

Question 2.
Explain why-
i) ortho-nitrophenol is more acidic than ortho-methoxyphenol
ii) -OH group attached to benzene ring activates it towards electrophilic substitution.
Answer:
i) ortho-nitrophenol is more acidic than ortho- methoxyphenol
The structures of the two compounds are here

Nitro group(-NO₂)is an electron withdrawing group. So,nitrophenol is more aeidic than phenol. Methoxy group (-OCH₃) is an electron releasing group. So, methoxyphenol is less acidic than phenol. Thus, ortho nitrophenol is more acidic than ortho-methoxy phenol.

ii) The -OH group is an electron releasing group. It increases the electron density at ortho and para positions on the benzene ring. Hence it activates benzene ring towards electrophilic substitution reactions.

Question 3.
With a suitable example write equations for the following:
i) Kolbe’s reaction
ii) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
iii) Williamsons ether synthesis
iv) Oxidation of alcohol with PCC
Answer:
i) Kolbe’s reaction: When sodium salt of phenol is heated with carbon dioxide at 135°C and under 4-7 atm pressure, a carboxyl group, mainly in the ortho position is introduced.

ii) Riemer-Tiemann reaction: On treating phenol with chloroform in the presence of sodium hydroxide, a -CHO group is introduced at ortho position of benzene ring.

iii) Williamson’s synthesis:
Reaction of Alkyl halides with sodium alkoxide forms ethers.

Ex: When methyl iodide reacts with sodium Ethoxide it forms methoxyethane.
CH₃I + C₂H₅ONa ⟶ CH₃O – C₂H₅ + NaBr

iv) Oxidation of alcohol with PCC:
A better reagent for oxidation of primary alcohols to aldehydes in good yield is pyridinium chlorochromate (PCC), a complex of chromium trioxide with pyridine and HCl.

Question 4.
Explain why phenol with bromine water forms 2,4,6-tribromophenol, while on reaction with bromine in CS₂ at low temperatures forms para-bromophenol as the major product.
Answer:
1) Formation of 2,4,6-tribromophenol: Phenol when treated with excess of aqueous bromine solution yields 2,4,6 tribromopehnol. Because in water, phenol ionises to give phenoxide ion which is strongly activating and gives trisubstituted product.

2) Formation of para-bromophenol: However, ifbromination is carried out in a solvent of low dielectric constant, such as chloroform, carbontetrachloride (or) carbon disulphide, ortho and para bromophenols are formed.This is because in these solvents ionisation is less and ring is slightly activated. Hence monosubstituted product is formed.

Bromination of phenol takes place even in the absence of Lewisacid, such as FeBr₃.
It is due to the highly activating effect of the -OH group on the benzene ring.

Objective Questions

Question 1.
The functional group present in alcohols is:
1. -CHO
2. -OH
3. -COOH
4. -NH₂
Answer:
2. -OH

Question 2.
The general formula of phenol is:
1. ArOH
2. RCHO
3. RCOOH
4. RNH₂
Answer:
1. ArOH

Question 3.
Which of the following is a primary alcohol?
1. Propan-2-ol
2. Butan-2-ol
3. Ethanol
4. tert-Butanol
Answer:
3. Ethanol

Question 4.
Phenol reacts with NaOH because phenol is:
1. Neutral
2. Basic
3. Acidic
4. Amphoteric
Answer:
3. Acidic

Question 5.
Which reagent converts alcohol into alkyl chloride?
1. NaOH
2. SOCl₂
3. H₂SO₄
4. KMnO₄
Answer:
4. KMnO₄

Question 6.
Ethanol on oxidation gives:
1. Methanoic acid
2. Ethanoic acid
3. Propanoic acid
4. Acetone
Answer:
2. Ethanoic acid

Question 7.
Phenol reacts with Bromine in CS₂ at lower temperature to give
1. p-bromophenol(80%)
2. o-Bromophenol (80%)
3. Tribromophenol
4. di bromophenol
Answer:
1. p-bromophenol(80%)

Question 8.
Which alcohol gives turbidity immediately with Lucas reagent?
1. Primary alcohol
2. Secondary alcohol
3. Tertiary alcohol
4. Phenol
Answer:
3. Tertiary alcohol

Question 9.
Phenol gives violet colour with:
1. NaOH
2. FeCl₃
3. HCl
4. NaCl
Answer:
2. FeCl₃

Question 10.
Ether contains the functional group:
1. -OH
2. -CO-
3. -O-
4. -CHO
Answer:
3. -O-

Question 11.
The IUPAC name of CH₃-O-CH₃ is:
1. Methoxy methane
2. Ethoxy methane
3. Dimethyl ether
4. Methanol
Answer:
1. Methoxy methane

Question 12.
Phenol is more acidic than alcohol because:
1. Phenoxide ion is resonance stabilized
2. Alcohol is basic
3. Phenol is neutral
4. Alcohol forms hydrogen bonds
Answer:
1. Phenoxide ion is resonance stabilized

Question 13.
Which compound undergoes Kolbe reaction?
1. Ethanol
2. Phenol
3. Ether
4. Methanol
Answer:
2. Phenol

Question 14.
Which compound undergoes Reimer- Tiemann reaction?
1. Ether
2. Alcohol
3. Phenol
4. Alkene
Answer:
2. Alcohol

Question 15.
Diethyl ether on heating with excess HI gives:
1. Ethene
2. Ethanol
3. Ethyl iodide
4. Acetaldehyde
Answer:
3. Ethyl iodide

Question 16.
Alcohols show hydrogen bonding due to:
1. Presence of carbon
2. Presence of oxygen
3. Presence of hydrogen attached to oxygen
4. Double bond
Answer:
3. Presence of hydrogen attached to oxygen

Question 17.
Which has the highest boiling point?
1. Ether
2. Alkane
3. Alcohol
4. Alkene
Answer:
3. Alcohol

Question 18.
Which compound is commonly called carbolic acid?
1. Methanol
2. Ethanol
3. Phenol
4. Ether
Answer:
3. Phenol

Question 19.
Williamson synthesis is used for preparation of:
1. Alcohols
2. Phenols
3. Ethers
4. Aldehydes
Answer:
3. Ethers

Question 20.
Methanol is also called:
1. Wood spirit
2. Grain alcohol
3. Vinegar
4. Carbolic acid
Answer:
1. Wood spirit

Question 21.
Which compound is most acidic?
1. Ethanol
2. Water
3. Phenol
4. Methanol
Answer:
3. Phenol

Question 22.
Lucas reagent contains:
1. anhydrous ZnCl₂ +Conc.HCl
2. NaOH + HCl
3. FeCl₃ + HCl
4. H₂SO₄ + Zn
Answer:
1. anhydrous ZnCl₂ +Conc.HCl

Question 23.
Phenol reacts with bromine water to give:
1. Bromobenzene
2. Tribromophenol
3. Dibromophenol
4. Bromoethane
Answer:
2. Tribromophenol

Question 24.
The major product formed when ethanol is heated with cone. H₂SO₄ at 443 K is:
1. Ethane
2. Ethene
3. Ethanal
4. Ether
Answer:
2. Ethene

Question 25.
Which alcohol gives ketone on oxidation?
1. Primary alcohol
2. Secondary alcohol
3. Tertiary alcohol
4. Methanol
Answer:
2. Secondary alcohol

Question 26.
Which reagent is used to distinguish phenol from ethanol?
1. NaOH
2. FeCl₃
3. H₂SO₄
4. NaCl
Answer:
2. FeCl₃

Question 27.
Tertiary alcohols resist oxidation because:
1. They are acidic
2. They lack±-hydrogen
3. They are unstable
4. They are volatile
Answer:
2. They lack±-hydrogen

Question 28.
Anisole is:
1. Alcohol
2. Ether
3. Phenol
4. Ester
Answer:
2. Ether

Question 29.
The product formed when phenol reacts with dilute nitric acid is:
1. Picric acid
2. Nitrobenzene
3. o- and p-nitrophenol
4. Benzoic acid
Answer:
3. o- and p-nitrophenol

Question 30.
Which compound forms explosive peroxides on standing in air?
1. Alcohols
2. Phenols
3. Ethers
4. Aldehydes
Answer:
3. Ethers

Question 31.
Which alcohol is least soluble in water?
1. Methanol
2. Ethanol
3. Propanol
4. Butanol
Answer:
4. Butanol

Question 32.
Hvdroboration-oxidation of alkenes gives:
1. Alcohols
2. Ketones
3. Aldehydes
4. Phenols
Answer:
1. Alcohols

Question 33.
Sodium metal reacts with alcohol to liberate:
1. Oxygen
2. Nitrogen
3. Hydrogen
4. Chlorine
Answer:
3. Hydrogen

Question 34.
Phenol on distillation with zinc dust gives:
1. Cyclohexane
2. Benzene
3. Toluene
4. Benzoic acid
Answer:
2. Benzene

Question 35.
Which compound gives iodoform test?
1. Methanol
2. Ethanol
3. Phenol
4. Ether
Answer:
2. Ethanol

Question 36.
The ether formed by dehydration of ethanol at 413 K is:
1. Methoxy methane
2. Diethyl ether
3. Phenol
4. Ethanal
Answer:
2. Diethyl ether

Question 37.
Which compound does NOT react with NaOH?
1. Phenol
2. Ethanoic acid
3. Ethanol
4. Picric acid
Answer:
3. Ethanol

Question 38.
The hybridisation of oxygen atom in alcohol is:
1. sp
2. sp²
3. sp³
4. dsp²
Answer:
3. sp³

Question 39.
Which is the strongest acid?
1. Phenol
2. p-Nitrophenol
3. Ethanol
4. Methanol
Answer:
2. p-Nitrophenol

Question 40.
Cleavage of ethers by HI proceeds through:
1. Free radical substitution
2. Electrophilic substitution
3. Nucleophilic substitution
4. Addition reaction
Answer:
3. Nucleophilic substitution

Regular practice with AP Inter 2nd Year Chemistry Study Material Chapter 8 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Questions and Answers helps students stay prepared for examinations.

AP Inter 2nd Year Chemistry 8th Lesson Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Questions and Answers

I. Mutliple Choice Questions

Question 1.
With which of the following reagents both ethanal and propanone react?
1) Tottens’
2) Setoff’s
3) Fehling
4) Grignard
Answer:
4) Grignard
Tollens ’, Fehling, Schiff ’ —»react mainly with aldehydes
Grignard reacts with both aldehydes & ketones (adds to C=0) Grignard reagent

Question 2.
Cannizzaro reaction is not given by
1) CH₃CHO
2) PhCHO
3) HCHO
4) (CH₃)₃C-CHO
Answer:
1) CH₃CHO
annizzaro reaction occurs only with aldehydes without a-hydrogen.
CH₃CHO has α-H does not give Cannizzaro

Question 3.
A new C—C bond is formed ¡n
1) Cannizzaro reaction
2) Rosenmund reduction
3) Clemmensen reduction
4) AIdol condensation
Answer:
4) AIdol condensation
New C-C bond formation happens when molecules combine.
Aldol condensation forms C-C bond between two aldehydes/ketones.

Question 4.
Fehling reagent oxidised an aliphatic aldehyde to carboxylic acid. The compound responsible for reddish brown precipitate is
1) CuO
2) Cu₂O
3) CU(OH)₂
4) (R-COO)₂Cu
Answer:
2) Cu₂O
Fehling’s solution contains Cu²⁺ ions. On reduction ⟶ CU₂O (reddish-brown ppt).

Question 5.
Clemmensen and Wolff-Kishner reductions are used to convert
1) R-Cl → R-H
2) R-CHO → R-CH₂OH
3) >C=O → >CH₂
4) R-COOH → R-CH₂OH
Answer:
3) >C=O → >CH₂
Clemmensen & Wolff-Kishner reduce carbonyl group
>C=O → – CH₂

Question 6.
Which of the following is a dicarboxvlic acid?
1) oxalic acid
2) benzoic acid
3) salicylic acid
4) picric acid
Answer:
1) oxalic acid
Dicarboxylic acid = 2 COOH groups.Oxalic acid = HOOC-COOH

Question 7.
CH₃CHO and C₆H₅CH₂-CHO can be distinguished chemically by
1) Benedict test
2) Iodoform test
3) Tollens’reagent
4) Fehling’s reagent
Answer:
2) Iodoform test
Iodoform test detects -COCH₃ group. CH₃CHO gives iodoform, C₅H₅CH₂CHO does not.

Question 8.
Conversion of CH₃COOH to CH₃COCI cannot be achieved by
1) SOCl₂
2) PCl₅
3) PCl₃
4) Cl₂/ red P
Answer:
4) Cl₂/ red P
Carboxylic acid → acid chloride requires chlorinating agent.
Cl₂ /red P forms PCl₃ in situ → converts COOH → COCl

Question 9.
Common reagent used to detect aldehydes and ketones is
1) Lucas reagent
2) 2, 4-DNP
3) Baeyer’s reagent
4) Tollens’ reagent
Answer:
2) 2, 4-DNP
2,4-DNP reacts with carbonyl group (C=O).Gives yellow/orange ppt → common test.

Question 10.
Benzaldehyde can be prepared from toluene by reacting with
1) CrO₂Cl₂ / CS₂
2) KMnO₄ / KOH
3) Pd / BaSO₄
4) CO+HCl/AlCl₃
Answer:
1) CrO₂Cl₂ / CS₂
Controlled oxidation of toluene gives benzaldehyde.
Chromyl chloride (CrO₂Cl₂) → Etard reaction.

Question 11.
Choose the weakest acid among the following
1) FCH₂COOH
2) Cl₂CCOOH
3) CH₂COOH
4) CH₃CH₂COOH
Answer:
4) CH₃CH₂COOH
Electron-donating groups decrease acidity. Alkyl group (+I effect) → weakest acid.
Propionic acid weakest here. CH₃CH₂COOH

Question 12.
Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
1) Formic acid – methanoic acid
2) acetic acid – ethanoic acid
3) malonic acid – propanedioic acid
4) adipic acid – ethanedioic acid
Answer:
4) adipic acid – ethanedioic acid
Adipic acid formula = hexanedioic acid, not ethanedioic. So mismatch.
adipic acid – ethanedioic acid

Question 13.
NaHSO₃ forms an adduct with all compounds except
1) CH₃CHO
2) H₃CCOCH₃
3) PhCHO
4) glucose
Answer:
4) glucose
NaHSO₃ forms addition compounds with aldehydes/ketones.
Glucose is not typical carbonyl (exists mainly cyclic).

Question 14.
Which one of the following is more reactive towards nucleophilic addition?
1) CH₃CHO
2) CH₃CH₂CHO
3) CH₃COCH₃
4) H₃CCH₂COCH₃
Answer:
1) CH₃CHO
Reactivity in nucleophilic addition depends on: +I effect (alkyl groups) →decreases reactivity
Steric hindrance → decreases reactivity. Order: Aldehyde > Ketone, and smaller
alkyl groups → more reactive. CH₃CHO has: only one alkyl group, less steric hindrance

Question 15.
The correct trend of boiling point is
1) CH₃COOH > CH₃COCH₃ > CH₃CH₂OH > CH₃CH₂Cl
2) CH₃CH₂OH > CH₃COOH > CH₃COCH₃ > CH₃CH₂Cl
3) CH₃CH₂OH > CH₃COOH > H₃CCH₂Cl > CH₃COCH₃
4) CH₃COOH > CH₃CH₂OH > H₃CCOCH₃ > CH₃CH₂Cl
Answer:
4) CH₃COOH > CH₃CH₂OH > H₃CCOCH₃ > CH₃CH₂Cl
Boiling point depends on intermolecular forces:Carboxylic acid → strongest (H-bonded dimers)
Alcohol → H-bonding. Ketone → dipole-dipole.
Alkyl halide → weak van der Waals
So order: Carboxylic acid > Alcohol > Ketone > Alkyl halide
Acid > Alcohol > Ketone > Alkyl chloride

II. Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
IUPAC name of formaldehyde is _________
Answer:
methanal (HCHO)

Question 2.
Chromium trioxide (CrO₃) in acidic (H₂SO₄) media is called _______ reagent
Answer:
Jones

Question 3.
Tollens’ reagent is ________
Answer:
freshly prepared ammonical silver nitrate solution

Question 4.
Carboxylic acids having an α-hydrogen are halogenated at the α-position on treatment with chlorine or bromine in presence of small amount of phosphorus to give α- halocarboxylic acids. This reaction is known as _________
Answer:
Hell-Volhard-Zellnskv reaction (HVZ reaction)

Question 5.
IUPAC name of Mesityl oxide is ___________
Answer:
4-methvlnent-3-en-2-one

III. One Word Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is name of the product formed when benzene is reacted with CO and HCl in the presence of anhydrous AlCl₃? .
Answer:
Benzaldehyde is obtained when benzene is reacted with CO and HCl.

Question 2.
What is Rochelle salt?
Answer:
Rochelle salt: Sodium potassium tartarate (KNaC₄H₄O₆.4H₂O) .
( A double salt of Tartaric acid)

Question 3.
Which acid is used as solvent in food industry as vinegar?
Answer:
Vinegar: Ethanoic acid (CH₃COOH or acetic acid>

Question 4.
Aldehydes and ketones undergo what type of addition reactions?
Answer:
Aldehydes and ketones undergo Nucleophilic addition reactions.

Question 5.
Phthalic acid on reaction with ammonia followed bv strong heating gives a compound ‘X’ along with elimination of NH₃. What is the name of that compound ‘X’?
Answer:
phthalimide

IV. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their property indicated.
i) acetaldehyde, acetone and t-butylmethyl ketone reactivity towards HCN
ii) fluoroacetic acid, monochloroacetic acid, acetic acid and dichloroacetic acid (acid strength)
Answer:
i) Reactivity towards HCN: t-butylmethyl ketone < acetone < acetaldehyde.
ii) Acid strength: dichloroacetic acid > fluoroaceticacid > monochloroacetic acid > acetic acid.

Question 2.
Write the reaction showing a-halogenation of carboxylic acid and give its name.
Answer:
HVZ Reaction: Carboxylic acids having an a-hydrogen are halogenated at the a-position on treatment with chlorine (or) bromine in the presence of small amount of red phosphorus to give a-halo carboxylic acids. The reaction is known as Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction.
Reaction of a-halogenation of carboxylic acid (HVZ reaction):

Question 3.
Although the phenoxide ion has a greater number of resonating structures than carboxylate ion, carboxylic acid is a stronger acid than phenol. Why?
Answer:
A carboxylic acid is a stronger acid than phenol due to the following reasons:
a) The conjugate base of carboxylic acid is carboxylate ion (RCOO^–), which is stabilised by two equivalent resonance structures in which the negative charge is at the more electronegative oxygen atom. But, the conjugate base of phenol, is phenoxide ion, has nonequivalent resonance structures in which the negative charge is at the less electro negative carbon atom. Hence, resonance in phenoxide ion is not as important as it is in carboxylate ion.

b) In a carboxylate ion, the negative charge is delocalised over two electro negative oxygen atoms, whereas it is less effectively delocalised on less electronegative carbon atoms in the phenoxide ion. So, a carboxylic acid is a stronger acid than a phenol.

Question 4.
How do you distinguish acetophenone and benzophenone?
Answer:
Acetophenone undergoes iodoform reaction due to the presence of acetyl group CH₃-CO .
But benzophenone does not undergo iodoform reaction due to the absence of CH₃-CO group

Question 5.
Explain the position of electrophilic substitution in benzoic acid.
Answer:
COOH group on benzene, deactivates the ring at ortho and para positions.
Hence substitution takes place at meta position.

Question 6.
Write equations showing the conversion of
i) acetic acid to acetyl chloride
ii) benzoic acid to benzamide
Answer:
i) acetic acid to acetyl chloride:
3CH₃COOH + PCl₃ ⟶ 3CH₃C0Cl + H₃PO₃
CH₃COOH + PCl₅ ⟶ CH₃COCl + POCl₃ + HCl
CH₃COOH + SOCl₂ ⟶ CH₃COCl + SO₂ + HCl

ii) benzoic acid to benzamide

Question 7.
An organic acid with molecular formula C₈H₈O₂ on decarhoylation forms Toluene. Identify the organic acid.
Answer:
The organic acid formed is phenyl acetic acid (2-Phenyl ethanoic acid)

Question 8.
List the reagents suitable to reduce carhoxy lic acid to alcohol.
Answer:
LiAlH₄ (or) copper chromate are the needed reducing reagents.

Question 9.
Write the mechanism of esterification.
Answer:

Question 10.
Compare the acidic strength of acetic acid, Chloroacetic acid, benzoic acid and Phenol.
Answer:
The relative values of k_a and pk_a indicate the acidic strength:
Higher k_a value and lower pk_a value indicates that the acid is strong.
Order of acidic strength: Chloroacetic acid > benzoic acid > acetic acid > phenol
The acidic strength of acetic acid, chloroactic acid, benzoic acid and phenol:

V. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Write the equations of any aldehyde with Fehling’s reagent.
Answer:
Fehling’s solution is an alkaline solution of copper sulphate containing Rochelle salt(sodium potassium tartrate) .
Fehling’s test: When Fehling’s solution is heated with an aldehyde a reddish brown precipitate of (Cu₂O) is formed.
RCHO + 2Cu⁺² + 5OH^– ⟶ RCOO^– + Cu₂O + 3H₂O

Question 2.
What is Tollen’s reagent? Explain its reaction with Aldehydes.
Answer:
1) Tollen’s reagent: Ammonical silver nitrate solution is called Tollen’s reagent.
Its formula is [Ag(NH₃)₂]⁺OH^–

2) Reaction of toulene with aldehydes ( Silver mirror test):
When Tollen’s reagent is warmed with an aldehyde, it gets reduced to metallic silver.
This metallic silver gets deposited on the inner wall of the test tube to form a silver mirror.
RCHO + 2 [Ag(NH₃)₂]⁺ + 3OH^– ⟶ RCOO^–Silver mirror + 2Ag ↓ + 4NH₃ + 2H₂O

Question 3.
Explain why Aldehydes and ketones undergo nucleophilic addition while alkenes undergoes electrophilic addition though both are unsaturated compounds.
Answer:
1) Nucleophilic addition: Aldehydes and ketones undergo nucleophilic addition because the intermediate anion formed by the attack of nucleophile on carbonyl group is more stable than the cation formed by attack of electrophile on carbonyl group.

2) Electrophilic addition: Alkenes undergoes electrophilic addition beacuse in alkenes there is double bond between two carbon atoms and is electron rich. This double bond is highly reactive. So it is attacked by electrophilic first. So alkenes undergo electrophilic addition reactions.

Question 4.
Arrange the following in the increasing order of their acidic strength:
benzoic acid, 4-methoxybenzoic acid, 4-nitrobenzoic acid and 4-nethylbenzoic acid.
Answer:
Acidic strength of electron with drawing -NO₂ group increases
Acidic strength of electron with releasing -OCH₃, -CH₃ groups decreases
But releasing power of -OCH₃ is more than that of -CH₃.
Lower Pka values indicate higher acidity.
Hence the increasing order (low to high) acidic strengths are given below:
4-methoxy benzoic acid < 4-methyl benzoic acid < benzoic acid < 4-nitrobenzoic acid.
P^ka values: (4.46) < (4.36) < (4.19) < (3.41)

Question 5.
Describe the following:
i) Crossed aldol condensation
ii) Decarboxylation
Answer:
i) Crossed aldol condensation: It is the condensation of two different carbonyl compounds (one of which must have one a-hydrogen) in the presence of alkali. It is the condensation of an aldehyde with a ketone in the presence of an alkali

ii) Decarboxylation: It removes a carboxyl group and releases CO₂.
Heating of anhydrous potassium salt of carboxylic acid with sodalime (CaO + NaOH) forms Alkane with the liberation of CO₂. The formed alkane contains one carbon less than that of parent acid.

Question 6.
Write the oxidation products of acetaldehyde, acetone and acetophenone.
Answer:

Question 7.
Write the IUPAC names of the following
(i) CH₃CH₂CH(Br)CH₂COOH
(ii) PhCH₂COCH₂COOH
(iii) CH₃CH(CH₃)CH₂COOC₂H₅
Answer:
i) CH₃CH₂CH(Br)CH₂COOH: 3-Bromol-pentanoicacid
ii) PhCH₂COCH₂COOH: 4-Phenyl-3-oxo butanoic acid
iii) CH₃CH(CH₃)CH₂COOC₂H₅: Ethyl-3-Methyl butanote

Question 8.
Explain the role of electron withdrawing and electron releasing groups on the acidity of carboxylic acids.
Answer:
1) The role of electron withdrawing group on the acidity of carboxylic acids:
The electron withdrawing substituents tend to withdraw electrons away from the carboxyl carbon. This favours declocalisation of the negative charge. Delocalisation of negative charge stabilizes the carboxylate anions and makes the release of H atom as H⁺ easier. Hence, the presence of an electron withdrawing substituent increases the acid strength of the acid.

2) The role of electron releasing groups on the acidity of carboxylic acids:
Alkyl groups, such as -CH₃, -C₂H₅ etc., are electron releasing groups. The presence of an electron releasing group tends to increase the negative charge on the oxygen atom of the anion. This localisation of negative charge on the oxygen of the carboxylic group destabilizes the anion. Due to the increased electrostatic effects the release of H atom of the —COOH group as a proton (H⁺) becomes more difficult. As a result, the strength of the acid decreases.

Question 9.
Draw the Structures of the following derivatives:
i) Acetaldehydedimethylacetal
ii) The ethylene ketal of hexan-3-one
iii) The methyl hemiacetal of formaldehyde
Answer:

Question 10.
An organic compound contains 69.77% carbon, 11.63% hydrogen and rest oxygen. The molecular mass of the compound is 86. It doesn’t reduce Tollens’ reagent but forms sodium hydrogen sulphite adduct and gives positive iodoform test. On vigorous oxidation forms ethanoic and propanoic acids. Write the possible structure of the compound.
Answer:
Determination of molecule formulae:

Empirical formula = C₅H₁₀O
Empirical formula mass = (5 × 12) + (10 × 1) + (1 × 16) = 86 Given molecular mass) = 86
n = \(\frac{\text { Molecular mass }}{\text { Empirical formula mass }}=\frac{86}{86}\) = 1
∴ Molecular formula of the compound = C₅H₁₀O
The compound does not reduce Fehling’s solution, but forms a bisulphite addition compound.
So, the compound is a ketone. This ketone compound gives idoform test.
So, the ketone is a methyl ketone. Then the possible compound is CH₃-CO-C₃H₇.
This compound on oxidation gives mixture of ethanoic acid and propanoic acid.
Therefore the possible structure is

VI. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the following terms. Give an example of the reaction in each case.
i) Cyanohydrin
ii) Acetal
iii) Semicarbazone
iv) Aldol
v) Hemiacetal
vi) Oxime
Answer:
i) Cyanohydrin: Cyanohydrins are very useful compounds for organic synthesis. Hydrogen cyanide (HCN) adds to aldehydes and ketones to form cyanohydrin

ii) Acetal: Aldehydes react with alcohols in the presence of dry hydrogen chloride to form gem- dialkoxy compounds which are known as acetals.

iii) Semicarbozone: Aldehydes and ketones react with semicarbazide (NH₂NHCONN₂) to form semicarbazone.

iv) Aldol: The β-hydroxy aldehydes (or) β-hydroxy ketones are called aldol.
Aldol reaction: Aldehydes and ketones having at least one α-hydrogen undergo a reaction in the presence of dilute alkali as catalyst to form β-hydroxy aldehyde (aldol) or β-hydroxy ketones (ketol) respectively.

v) Hemi Acetal: When one molecule of alcohol is added to one molecule of aldehyde, it forms a hemiacetal. It is an unstable compound. It contains functional groups of both alcohol and ether.

Hemiacetal reacts with one more alcohol molecule to form an acetal.

vi) Oxime: Aldehydes and ketones reacts with hydroxylamine to form oximes.

Question 2.
how do you distinguish the following pairs of compounds?
i) Propanal and propanone
ii) Acetophvnone and benzophennne
iii) Phenol and benìok acid
iv) Pentan-2-one and Pentan-3-one
Answer:
i) Propanal Vs propanone: Propanal(CH₃CH₂CH₂OH) does not undergo idoform reaction, where as propanone (CH₃—CO—CH₃) gives idoform when warmed with iodine in the presence of alkali.

ii) Acetophenone Vs benzopheiionc: Acetophenone is a methyl ketone (C₆H₅COCH₃) while benzophenone (C₆H₅COC₃₆H₅) is a diphenyl ketone. So acetophenone undergoes Idoform reaction. But Bezophenone does not undergo iodoform reaction.

iii) Phenol Vs benzoic acid:
a) Phenol gives coupling reactions with diazonium compounds, while benzoic acid does not. Phenol gives azodyes when reacted with benzenediazonium chloride (C₅H₅N₂Cl) Benzoic acid does not give any reaction with diazonium salts.

b) With neutral FeCl₃ phenols give reddish colour,, while benzoic acid gives buff-coloured precipitate.

iv) Pentan-2-one and Pentan-3-one: Pentan-2-one is a methyl ketone. So, it undergoes idoform test. So, when heated with iodine and alkali pentan-2-one, it gives idoform.
But pentan-3-one does not give this test.

Question 3.
Describe the following:
i) Acetylation
ii) Cannizzaro reaction
iii) Cross aldol condensation
iv) Decarboxylation
Answer:
i) Acety lation: Alcohols when treated with an acyl chloride (or) acid anhydride in the presence of pyridine give esters. In this reaction, H of the -OH group of alcohol is replaced by acyl (CH₃-CO-) group. So, this reaction is called acylation.

ii) Cannizzaro reaction:Aldehydes having no ‘a’ hydrogen undergo Cannizzaro’s reaction. Such aldehydes in the presence of concentrated alkaline solution undergo self oxydation-reduction to give a mixture of alcohol and a salt of carboxylic acid.
Ex: 1) 2 molecules of formaldehyde undergo self oxydation in presence of conc.NaOH to form methanol and Sodium formate.

2) Benzaldehyde gives benzyl alcohol and sodium benzoate.

iii) Cross aldol condensation: The condensation of two different carbonyl compounds (one of which must have one a-hydrogen) in the presence of alkali is called cross aldol condensation.

iv) Decarboxylation: It removes a carboxyl group and releases CO₂. Heating of anhydrous potassium salt of carboxylic acid with sodalime (CaO+NaOH) forms Alkane with the liberation of C02. The formed alkane contains one carbon less than that of parent acid.

Question 4.
Complete each synthesis by giving the missing starting material, reagent or product.

Answer:

Question 5.
Explain the following reactions
a) Aldol reaction
b) Esterification
c) H.V.Z reaction
d) Broniinaition of Benzoic acid
Answer:
a) Aldol reaction : Aldehydes and ketones having at least one α-hydrogen undergo a reaction in the presence of dilute alkali as catalyst to form β-hydroxy aldehyde.
This is also called Aldol condensation.

b) Esterification: Carboxylic acid reacts with alcohol in the presence of acidic medium (HCl, H₂SO₄) to give Ester.

c) H.V.Z Reaction: Carboxylic acids having an a-hydrogen are halogenated at the a-position on treatment with chlorine (or) bromine in the presence of small amount of red phosphorus to give a-halo carboxylic acids.

d) Bromination of Benzoic acid:
Bromination of Benzoic acid is an electrophilic aromatic substitution (EAS).
Bromine reacts with FeBr₃ to form a strong electrophile.The aromatic ring of benzoic acid attacks Br⁺ at the meta position, forming a sigma complex (arenium ion).
Loss of H⁺ restores aromaticity and gives the final product meta-bromobenzoic acid.

Objective Questions

Question 1.
Give IUPAC name of the compound given below.

1) 2-Chloro-5-hydroxyhexane
2) 2-Hydroxy-5-chlorohexane
3) 5-ChIorohexan-2-ol
4) 2-Chlorohexan-5-ol
Answer:
3) 5-ChIorohexan-2-ol

Question 2.
IUPAC name of
is
1) 1 -methoxy-1 -methylethane
2) 2-methoxy-2-methylethane
3) 2-methoxypropane
4) isopropylmethyl ether
Answer:
3) 2-methoxypropane

Question 3.
IUPAC name of m-cresol is
1) 3-methylphenol
2) 3-chlorophenol
3) 3-methoxyphenol
4) benzene-1,3-diol
Answer:
1) 3-methylphenol

Question 4.
How many alcohols with molecular formula C₄H₁₀O are chiral in nature?
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4)4
Answer:
1) 1

Question 5.
What is the correct order of reactivity of alcohols in the following reaction?

1) 1° > 2° > 3°
2) 1° < 2° > 3°
3) 3° > 2° > 1°
4) 3° > 1° > 2°
Answer:
3) 3° > 2° > 1°

Question 6.
The process of converting alkyl halides into alcohols involves ________
1) addition reaction
2) substitution reaction
3) dehydrohalogenation reaction
4) rearrangement reaction
Answer:
2) substitution reaction

Question 7.
Which of the following compounds will react with sodium hydroxide solution in water?
1) C₆H₅OH
2) C₆H₅CH₂OH
3) (CH₃)₃COH
4) C₂H₅OH
Answer:
1) C₆H₅OH

Question 8.
In the following sequence of reactions.

the end product is
1) acetone
2) methane
3) acetaldehyde
4) ethylalcohol
Answer:
4) ethylalcohol

Question 9.
Consider the following reaction,

The product Z is
1) toluene
2) benzaldehyde
3) benzoic acid
4) benzene
Answer:
3) benzoic acid

Question 10.
Monochlorination of toluene in sunlight followed by hydrolysis with aq. NaOH yields.
1) o-Cresol
2) m-Cresol
3) 2, 4-Dihydroxytoluene
4) Benzyl alcohol
Answer:
4) Benzyl alcohol

Question 11.
CH₃CH₂OH can be converted into CH₃CHO by _________
1) catalytic hydrogenation
2) treatment with LiAlH₄
3) treatment with pyridinium chlorochromate
4) treatment with KMnO₄
Answer:
3) treatment with pyridinium chlorochromate

Question 12.
The correct order of increasing acidic strength is ________
1) Phenol < Ethanol < Chloroacetic acid < Acetic acid
2) Ethanol < Phenol < Chloroacetic acid < Acetic acid
3) Ethanol < Phenol < Acetic acid < Chloroacetic acid
4) Chloroacetic acid < Acetic acid < Phenol < Ethanol
Answer:
3) Ethanol < Phenol < Acetic acid < Chloroacetic acid

Question 13.
Which of the following is most acidic?
1) Benzyl alcohol
2) Cyclohexanol
3) Phenol
4) m-Chlorophenol
Answer:
4) m-Chlorophenol

Question 14.
Which of the following compounds is aromatic alcohol?

1) A, B, C, D
2) A, D
3) B, C
4) A
Answer:
3) B, C

Question 15.
Compound can be prepared by the reaction of _________
1) Phenol and benzoic acid in the presence of NaOH
2) Phenol and benzoyl chloride in the presence of pyridine
3) Phenol and benzoyl chloride in the presence of ZnC₂
4) Phenol and benzaldehyde in the presence of palladium.
Answer:
2) Phenol and benzoyl chloride in the presence of pyridine

Question 16.
Among the following sets of reactants which one produces anisole?
1) CH₃CHO, RMgX
2) C₆H₅OH, NaOH, CH₃I
3) C₆H₅OH, neutral FeCl₂
4) C₆H₅-CH₃, CH₃COCl, AlCl₃
Answer:
2) C₆H₅OH, NaOH, CH₃I

Question 17.
The reagent which does not react with both, acetone and benzaldehyde.
1) Sodium hydrogensulphite
2) Phenyl hydrazine
3) Fehling’s solution
4) Grignard reagent
Answer:
3) Fehling’s solution

Question 18.
Which of the following compounds will give butanone on oxidation with alkaline KMnO₄ solution?
1) Butan-1 -ol
2) Butan-2-ol
3) Both of these
4) None of these
Answer:
2) Butan-2-ol

Question 19.
Phenol is less acidic than _______
1) ethanol
2) o-nitrophenol
3) o-methylphenol
4) o-methoxyphenol
Answer:
2) o-nitrophenol

Question 20.
Cannizaro’s reaction is not given by _______

3) H CHO
4) CH₃CHO
Answer:
4) CH₃CHO

Question 21.
In Ciemmensen Reduction carbonyl compound is treated with _________
1) Zinc amalgam + HCl
2) Sodium amalgam + HCl
3) Zinc amalgam + nitric acid
4) Sodium amalgam + HNO₃
Answer:
1) Zinc amalgam + HCl

Question 22.
Ciemmensen reduction of a ketone is carried out in the presence of which of the following?
1) Zn-Hg with HCl
2) LiAlH₄
3) H and Pt as catalyst
4) Glycol with KOH
Answer:
1) Zn-Hg with HCl

Question 23.
Reduction of aldehydes and ketones into hydrocarbons using zinc amalgam and conc.HCl is called
1) Ciemmensen reduction
2) Cope reduction
3) Dow reduction
4) Wolff-Kishner reduction
Answer:
1) Ciemmensen reduction

Question 24.
Which one of the following on treatment with 50% aqueous solution hydroxide yields the corresponding alcohol and acid?
1) C₆H₅CH₂CHO
2) C₆H₅CHO
3) CH₃CH₂CH₂CHO

Answer:
2) C₆H₅CHO

Question 25.
Iodoform test is not given by
1) 2-pentanone
2) ethanol
3) ethanal
4) 3-pentanone
Answer:
4) 3-pentanone

Reviewing AP Inter 2nd Year Economics Study Material Chapter 10 Economy of Andhra Pradesh Questions and Answers can help students prepare confidently for exams.

AP Inter 2nd Year Economics 10th Lesson Economy of Andhra Pradesh Questions and Answers

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain P4 approach initiated by Andhra Pradesh.
Answer:
1) The P4 approach (Public-Private-People Partnership) is a flagship initiative of Andhra Pradesh aimed at achieving “Zero Poverty by 2029”.

2) It involves a mentorship model where each poor family (Bangaru Kutumbam) is adopted by a mentor (Margadarsi) who provides guidance and support. The government acts as a facilitator, ensures access to services and schemes, and uses real-time monitoring, while encouraging community participation to create jobs and reduce poverty.

Question 2.
Briefly mention the export potential of Andhra Pradesh.
Answer:

1. Andhra Pradesh has strong export potential across agriculture, marine, industrial, and services sectors. It is the sixth largest exporting state, contributing about 4.5% of India’s exports.
2. The state exports rice (25% of India’s exports), marine products, chillies, tobacco, pharmaceuticals and software services, with a focus on improving quality and becoming a global logistics hub under Swarna Andhra Vision 2047.

Question 3.
Which are the backward districts in AP eligible for Central assistance as per the Reorganisation Act?
Answer:
As per the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014, seven backward districts are identified for Central assistance:

1. North Coastal region: Srikakulam, Vizianagaram, Visakhapatnam
2. Rayalaseema region: Kurnool, Anantapur, YSR Kadapa, Chittoor
   These districts receive Central assistance under a 90:10 (Centre: State) cost-sharing pattern.

Question 4.
Mention any two schemes of school education in A.P.
Answer:
Any two school education schemes in Andhra Pradesh are:

1. Talliki Vandanam – Provides financial assistance of ₹ 15,000 per year to support students’ education and development.
2. Mana Badi – Mana Bhavishyathu – Focuses on improving school infrastructure and providing better learning facilities.

Question 5.
Comment on the Global Capability Centres (GCC) in Andhra Pradesh.
Answer:

1. Global Capability Centres (GCCs) are offshore units of multinational companies providing IT, business, analytics and R&D services. Andhra Pradesh promotes GCCs through its IT & GCC Policy (2024-29) to make the state a major hub.
2. Cities like Visakhapatnam and Vijayawada are emerging GCC hubs, which help in job creation, skill development and attracting investment, strengthening the state’s knowledge economy.

Question 6.
Mention any two central institutions established in AP after state reorganisation, with their locations.
Answer:
Two central institutions established after the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014 are:

1. Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), Tirupati
2. Indian Institute of Management (IIM), Visakhapatnam

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Write about social welfare schemes of A.P.
Answer:
The Government of Andhra Pradesh is implementing several welfare schemes under the “Super Six”, along with other initiatives aimed at poverty alleviation and social support.

1) “Super Six” Schemes: These schemes provide direct financial and material assistance:

• Talliki Vandanam – ₹ 15,000 per year to support children’s education (Classes I – XII).
• Monthly Financial Aid for Women -₹ 1,500 per month to eligible women (19-59 years).
• Annadata Sukhibhava – ₹ 20,000 per year to farmers for agricultural expenses.
• Unemployment Allowance – Short Answer Questions3,000 per month for educated youth with job creation goal.
• Deepam 2.0 – Three free LPG gas cylinders annually.
• Free Bus Travel for Women – Free travel in APSRTC buses.

2) Other Key Welfare Initiatives

• NTR Bharosa Pension – ₹ 4,000 monthly support to vulnerable groups.
• Anna Canteens – Meals at ? 5 for the poor.
• Dr. NTR Vaidya Seva – Cashless healthcare for about 1.43 crore families.
• Dokka Seethamma Mid-Day Meal & School Kits – Improve nutrition and education.
• PMAY, Jal Jeevan Mission, Saubhagya- Housing, drinking water, and electrification.
• P4 Approach – Targets “Zero Poverty by 2029” through mentorship support.

Question 2.
Explain the impact of AP reorganisation on the resource endowment in Andhra Pradesh.
Answer:
The reorganisation of Andhra Pradesh in 2014 significantly altered the state’s economic landscape and resource endowment.

1. Overall Resource Share: After bifurcation, Andhra Pradesh inherited only 46% of the total resources of the combined state.
2. Forestry and Biodiversity: Forests became fragmented, as Telangana retained richer forest cover, reducing forest revenue, jobs, and eco-tourism potential.
3. Energy and Minerals: Loss of Singareni coalfields affected energy security. Though some minerals like barytes and uranium remained, key resources like limestone, granite, and iron ore were lost, reducing revenue and employment.
4. Water Resources: Godavari and Krishna rivers became interstate rivers, causing water disputes and delays in irrigation projects.
5. Economic Infrastructure: Loss of Hyderabad created a revenue gap and fiscal strain, forcing the state to rebuild institutions and adopt new development strategies.

Question 3.
Examine the Govt, initiatives for agricultural sector development in Andhra Pradesh.
Answer:
The Government of Andhra Pradesh has adopted a multi-faceted approach to develop agriculture, focusing on sustainability, financial security, and infrastructure modernization.

1) Sustainable and Natural Farming: Through APCNF & ZBNF, the state promotes natural farming to reduce input costs, improve climate resilience, and reduce dependence on chemicals. Support includes interest-free loans, subsidized seeds, and tools.

2) Financial and Legal Support: Schemes like Annadata Sukhibhava (₹ 20,000) and PM-Kisan (₹ 6,000) provide financial aid. Crop Cultivator Rights Cards (CCRCs) help tenant farmers access loans.

3) Institutional and Infrastructure Support: Rythu Seva Kendralu (RSKs) provide inputs and guidance, while farm mechanization, cold storage, and irrigation projects (Polavaram) improve productivity and reduce losses.

4) Market and Future Strategy: Market Intervention Schemes (MIS) ensure fair prices, and focus on seed quality and Agri-Tech (Al, loT, blockchain) under Swarna Andhra Vision 2047 supports long-term agricultural growth.

Question 4.
List out any four approaches and initiatives of the AP Industrial Policy.
Answer:
The Andhra Pradesh Industrial Development Policy (4.0) 2024-29 outlines key approaches to make the state a globally competitive industrial hub.

1. Prioritizing High-Growth Industries: Focus on sectors such as electronics, pharmaceuticals, food processing, green energy, semiconductors, and aerospace to drive industrial growth.
2. Infrastructure and Logistics: Provision of land consolidation, affordable infrastructure, and efficient logistics to support industries.
3. Ease of Doing Business: Implementation of investor-friendly policies including a Single Window Mechanism for quick approvals.
4. Support for MSMEs: Establishment of 175 MSME parks with financial assistance, capital subsidies, tax rebates, and employment-linked incentives.

Question 5.
Write a brief note on role of the service sector in Andhra Pradesh.
Answer:
The service sector is a crucial pillar of the Andhra Pradesh economy, acting as a major driver of growth and modernization.

1. Dominant Economic Contribution: The service sector is the largest contributor, accounting for 54.2% of GSDP (2024-25), with rapid growth in trade, hotels, and banking.
2. Significant Employer: About 31.6% of the workforce is employed in services such as trade, transport, education, health, and government jobs, with focus on IT and logistics.
3. Surge in Exports: Service exports, especially computer software, increased sharply from $3.9 billion (2023) to $26 billion (2024), strengthening the state’s global presence.
4. Emerging IT and Tourism Hub: Cities like Visakhapatnam and Vijayawada are growing as IT and GCC hubs, while tourism (over 254 million visits) boosts the hospitality sector.

Question 6.
Explain the employment generation strategy of Andhra Pradesh.
Answer:
The employment generation strategy of Andhra Pradesh is a multi-pronged approach focusing on skill development, industrial growth, and support for emerging sectors.

1) Strategic Vision and Skill Development: Under Swarna Andhra Vision 2047, the state promotes employment through education reforms and skill training. APSDC and skill hubs enhance technical, digital, and entrepreneurial skills.

2) Industrial and Infrastructure Expansion: Development of SEZs, industrial parks, and logistics hubs creates jobs in sectors like textiles, electronics, and pharmaceuticals. MSMEs and IT & GCC policy aim to generate large-scale employment.

3) Public Employment and Livelihood Support: Schemes like MGNREGA provide rural employment, while support to fisheries, handloom, and handicrafts ensures inclusive growth. Unemployment allowance (₹ 3,000) supports youth.

4) Future-Oriented Jobs: Focus on green energy, startups, and innovation hubs promotes jobs in renewable energy and digital sectors.

Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Discuss the characteristics of A.P economy.
Answer:
Characteristics of A.P economy:
1. Strong Macroeconomic Performance

• The Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) is estimated at ₹16.06 lakh crore (2024-25), with a growth rate of 12.94%, indicating a rapidly expanding economy.
• The Per Capita Income of ₹ 2,68,653 is higher than the national average, reflecting improved living standards. This demonstrates economic resilience and steady development.

2. Structural Shift in Sectoral Composition

• The economy has undergone significant structural transformation:
  • Services – 54.2 %
  • Industry – 27.6 %
  • Agriculture – 18.2 %
• This shows a transition from an agriculture-based economy to a service-oriented economy.

3. Employment Pattern and Challenges

• Agriculture contributes only 18.2% to GSDP but employs 45.6% of the workforce, indicating over-dependence on agriculture.
• Services employ 31.6% and industry 22.8%, reflecting gradual diversification.
• The unemployment rate is 4.1%, while graduate unemployment is around 24%, highlighting skill mismatch. Government established 192 Skill Hubs and aims to create 20 lakh jobs.

4. Rich Natural Resources and Export Strength

• Andhra Pradesh ranks 5th in mineral wealth, with resources such as barytes, limestone, quartz, and uranium.
• It has the 3rd longest coastline (1,053 km), contributing 40% of marine exports and 30% of fish production.
• Known as the “Rice Bowl of India,” it contributes significantly to rice exports along with chillies and tobacco.
• Service exports are also growing strongly, with software exports reaching $26 billion in 2024.

5. Demographic and Human Development Features

• The population is about 53.59 million, with a low growth rate of 0.35%, indicating demographic stability.
• Poverty has declined to 9.2%, reflecting effective welfare measures.
• Better health indicators and institutions such as NT Tirupati and IIM Visakhapatnam contribute to human capital development.

6. Impact of Reorganisation (2014)

• Andhra Pradesh retained only 46% of total resources, creating a weaker economic base.
• The loss of Hyderabad resulted in revenue and fiscal challenges.

7. Infrastructure and Development Focus

• The state is investing in industrial corridors, ports, logistics networks, and irrigation projects.
• Focus on MSMEs, industrial parks, and IT hubs aims to promote employment and industrialization.

8. Future Vision – Swarna Andhra Vision 2047

• Andhra Pradesh aims to become a $2.4 trillion economy by 2047.
• Key focus areas include: Zero Poverty (P4 approach),Farmer and Agri-Tech advancement (ZBNF) Deep-Tech integration (Al, Blockchain, IoT), Global logistics and infrastructure development
• The vision seeks to ensure sustainable, inclusive, and long-term economic growth.

Question 2.
Examine the employment generation strategy of A.P.
Answer:
Employment Generation Strategy of Andhra Pradesh: The employment generation strategy of Andhra Pradesh is a multi-dimensionai approach that combines long-term planning, skill development, industrial growth, and livelihood support to create sustainable employment opportunities.

I) Strategic Vision and Skill Development:

1. Swarna Andhra Vision 2047 places employment generation at the core of development, targeting a $2.4 trillion GSDP by 2047.
2. It focuses on preparing youth for a technology-driven economy through education reforms and skill-based training.
3. AP State Skill Development Corporation (APSDC) and 192 Skill Hubs provide technical, digital, and vocational training.
4. These centres also promote entrepreneurship, encouraging self-employment along with wage employment.
5. This helps create a skilled workforce required for industrial and service sector growth.

II) Public Employment Schemes and Industrial Expansion:

1. MGNREGA and other livelihood programmes provide large-scale wage employment, particularly in rural areas, reducing seasonal unemployment.
2. Urban livelihood programmes create employment opportunities in towns and cities.
3. The government promotes industrial growth through SEZs, industrial parks, and logistics hubs, attracting investment and generating jobs.
4. Sectors such as textiles, food processing, electronics, and pharmaceuticals are prioritized because of their high employment potential.
5. MSMEs are supported through subsidies, incentives, and easier credit access, creating local employment opportunities.

III) Startups, Green Jobs, and Inclusive Livelihoods:

1. Innovation hubs and incubation centres encourage youth participation in IT, digital services, and startups.
2. This promotes modern employment opportunities aligned with global trends.
3. Renewable energy projects, organic farming, and sustainable practices generate green jobs.
4. Traditional sectors such as fisheries, handloom, handicrafts, and agriculture-related activities continue to support rural and coastal livelihoods.
5. These measures promote inclusive growth and reduce regional disparities.

IV) Outcomes and Continuing Challenges:

1. Government initiatives helped reduce the unemployment rate from 6.8% (2023) to 5.9% (2024).
2. However, challenges remain:
   1. Regional imbalances in employment opportunities
   2. Underemployment in agriculture
   3. Need for continuous skill upgradation to meet industry requirements.

Question 3.
Explain the main features of Swarna Andhra Vision 2047.
Answer:
Swarna Andhra Vision 2047 is a comprehensive long-term development roadmap launched on December 13,2024, aiming to transform Andhra Pradesh into a “Wealthy, Healthy and Happy State” by 2047. It aligns with the national goal of Viksit Bharat 2047 and targets a Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) of $2.4 trillion, reflecting an ambitious plan for rapid and inclusive growth.

1) Ten Sutras – Core Strategic Framework:
i) Zero Poverty: Focuses on complete eradication of poverty through inclusive growth strategies like welfare schemes and the P4 approach, ensuring that all sections benefit from development.

ii) Population Management and Human Resource Development: Aims at balanced population growth while strengthening education, healthcare, and skill levels, thereby improving the quality of human capital.

iii) Employment and Skilling: Targets creation of 20 lakh jobs and emphasizes skill development programs, ensuring youth are equipped for modern, technology-driven employment.

iv) Water Security: Ensures efficient irrigation, water conservation, and Al-based water management systems, which are essential for agriculture and sustainable development.

v) Farmer & Agri-Tech Advancement: Focuses on modernizing agriculture through smart farming techniques, digital support systems, and sustainable practices, improving productivity and farmer incomes.

vi) Global-Best Logistics: Aims to develop world-class infrastructure, ports, and logistics networks, leveraging the state’s coastline to become a global trade and logistics hub.

vii) Cost Optimization in Energy & Fuel: Promotes renewable energy sources and efficient power generation, reducing costs and ensuring energy security.

viii) Product Perfection: Focuses on improving quality standards of goods and exports, making Andhra Pradesh competitive in global markets.

ix) Swachh Andhra: Emphasizes sanitation, clean environment, waste management, and urban infrastructure, improving living conditions and public health.

x) Deep-Tech in All Sectors: Encourages integration of advanced technologies such as Al, Blockchain, and loT across agriculture, industry, and services to drive innovation and efficiency.

2) Focus on inclusive and Balanced Growth

• The vision ensures inclusive development, addressing regional disparities and improving opportunities for all sections of society.
• It promotes citizen participation, ensuring that development is people-centered.

3) Emphasis on Sustainability and Future Readiness

• Strong focus on green energy, sustainable agriculture, and efficient resource utilization.
• Encourages technology-driven growth, preparing the state for future economic challenges.

4) Improvement in Quality of Life

• The vision prioritizes better healthcare, education, housing, sanitation, and infrastructure, ensuring overall well-being of citizens.
• It aims at creating not just economic growth, but also a healthy and happy society.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
The forest cover in Andhra Pradesh approximately accounts for:
1) 19 %
2) 23 %
3) 25 %
4) 27 %
Answer:
2) 23 %

Question 2.
Under AP Reorganized Act, 2014, All MS is established in ____________
1) Visakhapatnam
2) Tirupathi
3) Mangalagiri
4) Tadepalligudem
Answer:
3) Mangalagiri

Question 3.
The share of industry and manufacturing sector in Andhra Pradesh GSDP: (As per AP Socio-economic survey 2024-25)
1) 26 %
2) 21 %
3) 16.8%
4) 22.8%
Answer:
4) 22.8%

Question 4.
What does the Society of Elimination of Rural Poverty (SERP) promote through SHGs?
1) Self-employment
2) Handicrafts production
3) Rural Housing
4) Microfinancing
Answer:
1) Self-employment

Question 5.
The GSDP target of Swara Andhra Vision 2047:
1) $ 2.0 trillion
2) $ 2.2 trillion
3) $ 2.4 trillion
4) $ 2.6 % trillion
Answer:
3) $ 2.4 trillion

Question 6.
The following is true regarding the impact of rorganisation of Andhra Pradesh in 2014
1) AP inherited 46 % of resources
2) AP’s forest-based revenue increased
3) The income from mines were not affected
4) Lost deposits of Barytes and Uranium
Answer:
1) AP inherited 46 % of resources

Question 7.
Which of the following statements is not correct?
1) AP IT policy aims to create 10 lakh jobs
2) AP aims to double the share in software exports by 2047
3) AP contributes about 45% of India’s rice exports
4) AP’s graduate unemployment rate is less than the national average.
Answer:
1) AP IT policy aims to create 10 lakh jobs

Question 8.
MEPMA is nodal agency that aims to:
1) Improve municipal governance
2) Eliminate rural poverty
3) Eliminate poverty in urban areas
4) Improve sanitation in urban slums
Answer:
1) Improve municipal governance

Question 9.
The rank of the population growth rate of Andhra Pradesh among the states in 2025 is:
1) 2nd lowest
2) 3rd lowest
3) 4th lowest
4) 6th lowest
Answer:
1) 2nd lowest

Question 10.
Andhra Pradesh is among India’s top exporters of:
1) Cotton, tobacco
2) Chillis, oil seeds
3) Fish and mangoes
4) Chillis and tobacco
Answer:
4) Chillis and tobacco

Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
Andhra Pradesh is the ____________ largest producer of raw silk in India.
Answer:
second

Question 2.
The amount given annually under Talliki Vandanam scheme is Rs. ____________.
Answer:
15,000

Question 3.
The growth rate of Agriculture sector is ____________ than other two sectors in AP in 2024-25.
Answer:
higher

Question 4.
Under Deepam-2 scheme eligible families get ____________ LPG gas cylinders per year.
Answer:
3

Question 5.
Under Annadata Sukhibhava Scheme, the Annual financial assistance of ____________ will be given to eligible farmers.
Answer:
Rs. Rs. 20,000

One Word Answers

Question 1.
What is the scheme under which farmers can have subsidized drones?
Answer:
RKVY (Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana)- The Kisan Drone Yojana 2025

Question 2.
What does Sankalpam scheme focus on?
Answer:
Life skills (training in core life skills to school children of 6-8 classes)

Question 3.
When was Dokka Seethamma Madhyahna Badi Bhojanam extended to Junior Colleges?
Answer:
January 2025.

Question 4.
Where was the Indian Institute of Science Education and Reserch (USER) was located in Andhra Pradesh?
Answer:
Tirupati

Question 5.
Expand ASHA.
Answer:
Accredited Social Health Activist.

Regular practice with AP Inter 2nd Year Chemistry Study Material Chapter 9 Amines Questions and Answers helps students stay prepared for examinations.

AP Inter 2nd Year Chemistry 9th Lesson Amines Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which of the following amines cannot be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide reaction?
1) Benzylamine
2) Aniline
3) Ethylamine
4) Methylamine
Answer:
2) Aniline
Gabriel synthesis gives only aliphatic primary amines.
Aromatic amines (like aniline) cannot be prepared.

Question 2.
Which of the following reaction does not produce amine?
1) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
2) Hoffmann bromamide degradation reaction
3) Carbylamine reaction
4) Reduction of nitriles
Answer:
3) Carbylamine reaction
Gabriel, Hofmann, Reduction → all give amines.
Carbylamine reaction is only a test (does not prepare amine)

Question 3.
Classification of amines into 1°, 2″, 3″ is based on the
1) number of amino groups
2) nature of carbon atom
3) degree of substitution at nitrogen
4) degree of unsaturation
Answer:
3) degree of substitution at nitrogen
Classification (1°, 2°, 3°) depends on how many groups are attached to nitrogen.
Not number of -NH₂ groups. Degree of substitution at nitrogen

Question 4.
Which of the following amines does not react with Hinsberg reagent?
1) CH₃CH₂NH₂
2) (CH₃CH₂)₂NH
3) (CH₃CH₂)₃N
4) all will react
Answer:
3) (CH₃CH₂)₃N
Hinsberg reagent reacts with: 1 ° amine → soluble product
2° amine → insoluble product; 3° amine → no reaction (CH₃CH₂)₃N
Tertiary amines do not react.

Question 5.
Identify the product Y in the given reaction sequence.

Answer:

Sequence: Nitrobenzene → (Sn/HCl) → aniline (X)
Aniline → diazonium salt → coupling with phenol (in basic medium)
Gives azo dye (-N=N-) with -OH group on ring.
Azo compound with -OH substituted benzene ring

Question 6.
Propanoic acid on reaction with NH₃ followed by heating gives a compound X, which on reaction with Br₂ and aqueous KOH gives.
1) Propylamine
2) Ethanamine
3) Ethanenitrile
4) Propanenitrile
Answer:
2) Ethanamine
Propanoic acid + NH₃ → amide
Amide + Br₂/KOH → Hofmann bromamide reaction
Gives amine with one less carbon → ethylamme

Question 7.
Benzene diazonium chloride salt solution is heated at about 283 K the salt gets hydrolysed to compound “A”: A can be identified with
1) Lucas reagent
2) Neutral ferric chloride
3) Tollens’reagent
4) Hinsberg reagent
Answer:
2) Neutral ferric chloride
Diazonium salt + water (heat) → phenol
Phenol gives violet color with FeCl₃

Question 8.
The number of primary amines possible for a compound with molecular formula C₄H₁₁N are
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Answer:
4) 4
Count possible structures of primary amines (—NH₂) for C₄H₁₁N
Different carbon skeletons give multiple isomers. Total = 4

Question 9.
Which of the following is most volatile?
1) CH₃CH₂CH₂NH₂
2) (CH₃)₃N

4) CH₃OH
Answer:
2) (CH₃)₃N
Volatility ∝ lower intermolecular forces. H-bonding decreases volatility
Tertiary amine has no N—H → least H-bonding → most volatile (CH₃)₃N

Question 10.
Aliphatic primary amine on heating with chloroform and ethanolic KOH gives
1) an alcohol
2) an alkanediol
3) an alkyl isocyanide
4) an alkyl cyanide
Answer:
3) an alkyl isocyanide
Reaction with CHCl₃ + alcoholic KOH → CarIylamine reaction.
Only primary amines give isocyanides (foul smell).

Question 11.
Which of the following does not reduce C₃H₅NO₂ to C₆H₅NH₂?
1) Fe/ HCl
2) Zn/ HCl
3) LiAlH₄
4) SnCl₂ in HCl
Answer:
3) LiAlH₄
Reduction of nitrobenzene to aniline is done by metal + acid (Fe/HCl, Zn/HCl, SnCl₂/HCl).
LiAlH₄ generally reduces different functional groups, not used here.

Question 12.
The end product in the given reaction sequence is

1) CH₃-CH₂-NH₂
2) CH₃CONH₂
3) CH₃-NH-CH₃
4) CH₃CH₂OH
Answer:
4) CH₃CH₂OH

Question 13.
Which among the following has the lowest pKb value in aqueous medium?
1) NH₃
2) CH₃NH₂
3) (CH₃)₂NH
4) (CH₃)₃N
Answer:
3) (CH₃)₂NH
Basicity in aqueous medium depends on +I effect + solvation.
Secondary amines are most basic due to balance of both.
Order: 2° > 1° > 3° > NH₃ (CH₃)₂NH

Question 14.
Formation of benzene from benzene diazonium chloride can be carried out with
1) H₃PO₃
2) H₃PO₄
3) H₃PO₂
4) HPO₃
Answer:
3) H₃PO₂
Benzene diazonium salt → benzene requires reduction.
H₃PO₂ acts as reducing agent (replaces N₂⁺ with H)

Question 15.
Aniline reacts with the following to give benzanilide
1) Benzyl chloride
2) Benzal chloride
3) Benzoyl chloride
4) Benzo tri chloride
Answer:
3) Benzoyl chloride
Aniline + acyl chloride → benzoylation (Schotten—Baumann reaction).
Gives benzanilide. Beuzoyl chloride

II. Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
The shape of trimethyl amine is _________
Answer:
pyramidal

Question 2.
Benzenesulphonyl chloride (C₆H₅SO₂Cl), is also known as _________
Answer:
Hinsbere’s reagent

Question 3.
Carbylamine reaction or isocyanide test is used for the identification of ___________
Answer:
primary amines or 1° amines

Question 4.
The conversion of primary aromatic amines into diazonium salts is known as ___________
Answer:
diazotisation

Question 5.
Coupling reaction of aryl diazonium salts with phenols or aryl amines gives rise to the formation of __________
Answer:
azodyes

III. One Word Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is the IUPAC name of ethyl methyl amine?
Answer:
IUPAC name of ethyl methyl amine is N-methyl ethanamine.

Question 2.
The process of cleavage of the C-X bond of alkyl halides by ammonia molecule is known as
Answer:
Ammonolysis is the cleavage of the C-X bond of alkyl halides by ammonia molecule.

Question 3.
Aniline and other arylamines are usually colourless but get coloured on storage why?
Answer:
Aniline and other arylamines get coloured on storage due to Atmospheric oxidation.

Question 4.
Tertiary amines like trimethylamine are used as
Answer:
Tertiary amines are used to attract flies or insects.

IV. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Write the IUPAC names of the following compounds and classify into primary, secondary and tertiary amines.
(i) (CH₃)₂CHNH₂
(ii) CH₃(CH₂)₂NH₂
(iii) (CH₃CH₂)₂NCH₃.
Answer:

Question 2.
Explain why ethylamine is more soluble in water where as aniline is sparingly soluble.
Answer:
Ethylamine forms hydrogen bonds with water molecules and hence dissolves in water. Aniline, due to its large hydrocarbon part, develops hydrophobic character. As a result it does not dissolve in water.

Question 3.
Why aniline does not undergo Friedel-Craft reactions?
Answer:
Aniline doesnot undergo Friedel-Crafts reaction. Actually, aniline being a Lewis base forms a complex with AlCl₃ which is a Lewis acid. The amino group is not in a position to activate the benzene ring towards electrophilic substitution. Hence, alkylation (or) acylation which lead to Fridel Crafts reaction is not possible.

Question 4.
Gabriel phthalimide synthesis exclusively forms primary amines . Explain.
Answer:
Gabriel phthalimide synthesis is preferred for synthesizing aliphatic primary amines because aryl halides do not undergo nucleophilic substitution with the anion formed by phthalimide.

Question 5.
Arrange the following bases in decreasing order of pK_b values C₂H₅NH₂, C₆H₅NHCH₃, (C₆H₅)₂NH and C₆H₅NH₂.
Answer:
Decreasing order of pK_b : C₆H₅NH₂ > C₆H₅NHCH₃ > C₂H₅NH₂ > (C₆H₅)₂NH
pK_b values: 9.38 > 9.30 > 3.29 > 3.00
[Decreasing order of Basicity: (C₆H₅)₂NH > C₂H₅NH₂ > C₆H₅NHCH₃ > C₆H₅NH₂

Question 6.
Arrange the following bases in increasing order of their basic strength. Aniline, p-nitroaniline and p-toluidine.
Answer:
Increasing order (low’ to high) of basic strength:
p-nitroaniline < Aniline < p-toluidine.

Question 7.
Write equations for carbylamine reaction of an aliphatic amine.
Answer:
When a primary amine is heated with alcoholic caustic potash and chloroform, an offensive
smelling compound called carbylamine (Ethylisocyanide) is formed. The reaction is used as a test for chloroform (or) for a primary amine.

Question 8.
Give structures of A, B and C in the following reaction.

Answer:

Question 9.
Accomplish the following conversions:
(i) Benzoic acid to benzamide
(ii) Aniline to p-bromoaniline
Answer:

Question 10.
Why aromatic primary amines cannot be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide?
Answer:
Aryl halides does not react with potassium phthalimide. Because C-X bond in haloarene is difficult to be cleaved due to partial double bond character. They do not undergo nucleophilic substitution with the anion formed by phthalimide. So, aromatic primary amines cannot be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis.

V. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Give one chemical test to distinguish between the following pairs of compounds:
i) Methylamine and dimethvlamine
ii) Aniline and N-methylaniline
iii) Ethylamine and aniline
Answer:
i) Methylamine is a primary amine, while dimethyl amine is a secondary amine.
So, methyl amine undergoes carbylamine test, while dimethylamine does not.
When methylamine is heated with chloroform and alcohalic KOH, an offensive smelling compound methyl carbylamine is formed.

ii) Aniline is a primary amine, while N-methylaniline is a secondary amine.
So aniline undergoes carbylamine test, while N-methylaniline doesnot.

iii) Ethylamine and aniline are primary aromatic amines.
Aniline undergoes azodye test, while ethylamine doesnot.

Question 2.
How do you prepare the following?
i) N, N-Dimethyl propanamine from ammonia
ii) Propanamine from chloroethane
Answer:

Question 3.
Compare the basicity of the following in gaseous state and in aqueous state and arrange them in increasing order of basicity.
CH₃NH₂, (CH₃)₂NH, (CH₃)₃N and NH₃
Answer:
P^kb values of NH₃, CH₃NH₂, (CH₃)₂NH, (CH₃)₃N are 4.74, 3.35, 3.27, 4.22 respectively.
“Smaller is the value of Pkb, greater is the basic nature of amine.
Hence, increasing order of basicity: NH₃ < (CH₃)₃N < CH₃NH₂ < (CH₃)₂NH
In gaseous phase, basic character of amines increases with the increase in number of electron releasing groups(+I groups). Due to +1 effect, the order of basicity of amines is as follows
[(CH₃)₃N > (CH₃)₂NH > CH₃NH₂ > NH₃]
In aqueous state, basicity depends on stability of protonated amines.
Greater the strength of H-bonding greater will be stability and more is the basic strength.
Hence order of basicity : NH₃ > CH₃NH₂ >(CH₃)₂NH > (CH₃)₃N
But overall basic strength of Amines depends on combined effect of steric, solvation and Inductive effect. Hence overall order is (CH₃)₂NH > CH₃NH₂ > (CH₃)₃N > NH₃

Question 4.
How do you carry out the following conversions?
i) N-ethylamine to N,N-diethvl propanamine
ii) Aniline to Benzene sulphonamide
Answer:
i) N-ethylamine to N,N-diethyl propanamine:

ii) Aniline to Benzene sulphonamide

Question 5.
Explain with a suitable example, how benzene sulphonylchloride can distinguish primary, secondary and tertiary amines.
Answer:
Benzene Sulphonyl chloride (C₆H₅SO₂Cl) is used to distinguish 1 °, 2°, 3° Amines.
This is also known as Hinsberg’s reagent.
i) 1 ° Amines (Ethylamine) react with Benzene sulphonyl chloride to form N-Ethyl benzene sulphonamide.

The hydrogen attached to nitrogen in sulphonamide is strongly acidic due to the presence of strong electron withdrawing sulphonyl group. Hence it is soluble in alkali.

ii) 2° Amines (Diethylamine) react with Benzene sulphonyl chloride to form N,N-Diethyl- benzene sulphonamide.

Since N,N-Diethylbenzene sulphonamide doesnot contain any hydrogen atom attached to nitrogen atom, it is not acidic and hence insoluble in alkali.

iii) Tertiary amines do not react with benzene sulphonyl chloride. Hence Hinsberg reagent is useful to distinguish primary, secondary and tertiary amines.

Question 6.
Write the reactions of
(i) aromatic and (ii) aliphatic primary amines with nitrous acid, highlighting the differences.
Answer:
i) Aromatic amines react with nitrous acid at low temperatures (273-278K) to form diazonium salts.

ii) Aliphatic primary amines react with nitrous acid to form aliphatic diazonium salts which being unstable, liberate nitrogen gas and alcohols. Quantitative evolution ofnitrogenis used for the estimation of amino acids and proteins.

Question 7.
Explain why amines are less acidic than alcohols of comparable molecular masses.
Answer:
Electronegativity of oxygen is more than that of nitrogen. Thus the oxygen in alcohols tends to pull electrons twoards itself and releases H+ more easily. On the other hand, the presence of alkyl group on the nitrogen atom in amines increases electron density to make it more basic than alcohol. Therefore, amines are less acidic than alcohols.

Question 8.
Write the equations involved in the reaction of Nitrous acid with ethylamine and aniline.
Answer:
1) Primary aliphatic amines like C₂H₅NH₂ react with nitrous acid and form aliphatic diazonium salts. But it being unstable, dissociates to give ethyl alcohol and N₂ gas.

2) Aromatic amines like C₆H₅NH₂ react with nitrous acid at low temperatures (273-278K) and form diazonium salts.

Question 9.
An aromatic compound ‘A’ on treatment with aqueous ammonia and heating forms compound ‘B’, which on heating with Br2 and KOH forms compound ‘C’ of molecular formula C₆H₇N. Write the structures and IUPAC names of compounds A, B and C.
Answer:
From the given data, compound B upon heating with Br2 and KOH forms a compound C .
This indicates that the compound B is an acid amide and C is amine.
Since B has been formed upon heating compound A which is an aromatic acid and it is benzoic acid.
The reactions involved are given as follows:

Question 10.
Account for the following:
pK_b of aniline is more than thit of methyla mine
Answer:
In aniline due to resonance, the lone pair of electrons on the N atom are delocalized over the benzerie ring. Due to this, electron density on the nitrogen decreases.
But in CH₃NH₂, +1-effect of CH₃ increases the electron density on the N-atom.
Thus, aniline is a weaker hase than methylamine and hence its pK_b value is more than that of methylamine.

VI. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain why the order of basicity for methylamine, N,N-dimethyl amine and N,N,N-trimethylamine changes in gaseous and aqueous medium.
Answer:
In gaseous phase, due to +1 effect, basic character of amines increases with increase in number of electron releasing groups.
So the order of basicity: [(CH₃)₃N > (CH₃)₂NH > CH₃NH₂ > NH₃]
In aqueous state, basicity depends on stability of protonated amines. Greater the strength of El- bonding greater will be stability and more is the basic strength.
So order of basicity :NH₃ > CH₃NH₂ >(CH₃)₂NH > (CH₃)₃N
But overall basic strength of Amines depends on combined effect of steric, solvation and Inductive effect.
Hence overall order : (CH₃)₂NH > CH₃NH₂ > (CH₃)₃N > NH₃

Question 2.
Complete the following conversions.
Aniline to (i) Fluorobenzene (ii) Cyanobenzene (iii) Benzene and (iv) Phenol.
Answer:
i) Aniline to Fluorobenzene: This conversion involves two stages:
a) Preparation of Benzenediazonium chloride: Benzene diazonium chloride is prepared by the reaction of aniline with nitrous acid at 273-278K.

b) Preparation of Fluorobenzene: Benzene diazonium chloride on heating with fluoroboric acid gives fluorobenzene.

The reaction is called Balz-Schiemann reaction.

Question 3.
Explain the following name reactions:
i) Sandmeyer reaction
ii) Gattermann reaction
Answer:
i) Sandmeyer reaction: This reaction is used to convert aniline into an alkyl halide (Cl^–, Br^–) or Cyanide (CN^–). It is used in the synthesis of chlorobenzene, bromobenzene and benzionitris.
This process involves forming a dizaonium salt at 0-5°C, which undergoes copper catalysed radical substitution releasing nitrogen gas.
The Cl^–, Br^– and CN^– nucleophiles can be introduced in the benzene ring in the presence of Cu₂Cl₂ / HCl (or) Cu₂Br₂ / HBr (or) CuCN/KCN.

ii) Gattermann reaction: This reaction is used for obtaining chiorobenzene (or) bromobenzene from benzene diazonium chloride by treating it with Cu/HCl (or) Cu/HBr respectively.

Question 4.
Write the steps involved in the coupling of benzene diazonium chloride with aniline and phenol.
Answer:
Coupling reactions: Benzene diazonium salt reacts with certain aromatic compounds having an electron rich group (-OH, -NH₂ etc.,) to form azo compounds. Azo compounds are highly coloured and are used as dyes. This reaction is known as coupling reaction and is carried by controlling the pH of the medium.
Coupling reactions is an electrophilic substitution reaction.
Ex 1: Benzene diazonium chloride reacts with phenol. In this reaction diazonium group is coupled with phenol at para position by electrophilic substitution reaction to form p-hydroxy azobenzene.

Ex 2: Reaction of diazonium salt with aniline yields p-amino azobenzene.

Objective Questions

Question 1.
Which of the following is a 3° amine?
1) 1 -methylcyclohexylamine
2) Triethylamine
3) tert-butylamine
4) N-methylaniline
Answer:
2) Triethylamine

Question 2.
The correct 1UPAC name for CH₂==CHCH₂ NHCH₃ is
1) Allylmethylamine
2) 2-amino-4-pentene
3) 4-aminopent-1-ene
4) N-methylprop-2-en-1-amine
Answer:
4) N-methylprop-2-en-1-amine

Question 3.
Acid anhydrides on reaction with primary amines give _________
1) amide
2) imide
3) secondary amine
4) imine
Answer:
1) amide

Question 4.
Amongst the following, the strongest base in aqueous medium is _______
1) CH₃NH₂
2) NCCH₂NH₂
3) (CH₃)₂ NH
4) C₆H₅NHCH₃
Answer:
3) (CH₃)₂ NH

Question 5.
Benzylamine may be alkylated as shown in the following equation :
C₆H₅CH₂NH₂ + R—X → C₆H₅CH₂NHR Which of the following alkylhalides is best suited for this reaction through S_N1 mechanism?
1) CH₃Br
2) C₆H₅Br
3) C₆H₅CH₂Br
4) C₂H₅Br
Answer:
3) C₆H₅CH₂Br

Question 6.
Which of the following reagents would not be a good choice for reducing an aryl nitro compound to an amine?
1) H_2(excess) /Pt
2) LiAlH₄ in ether
3) Fe and HCl
4) Sn and HCl
Answer:
2) LiAlH₄ in ether

Question 7.
Best method for preparing primary amines from alkyl halides without changing the number of carbon atoms in the chain is
1) Hoffmann Bromamide reaction
2) Gabriel.phthalimide synthesis
3) Sandmeyer reaction
4) Reaction with NH₃
Answer:
2) Gabriel.phthalimide synthesis

Question 8.
The gas evolved when methylamine reacts with nitrous acid is ______
1) NH₃
2) N₂
3) H₂
4) C₂H₆
Answer:
2) N₂

Question 9.
Electrolytic reduction of nitrobenzene in weakly acidic medium gives
1) aniline
2) nitrosobenzene
3) N-phenyl hydroxylamine
4) p-hydroxyaniline
Answer:
1) aniline

Question 10.
Amongst the given set of reactants, the most appropriate for preparing 2°amine is ______
1) 2° R—Br + NH₃
2) 2° R—Br + NaCN followed by H₂/Pt
3) 1° R—NH₂ + RCHO followed by H₂/Pt
4) 1° R—Br (2 mol) + potassium phthalimide followed by H₃O⁺/heat
Answer:
3) 1° R—NH₂ + RCHO followed by H₂/Pt

Question 11.
The source of nitrogen in Gabriel synthesis of amines is ________
1) Sodium azide, NaN₃
2) Sodium nitrite, NaNO₂
3) Potassium cyanide, KCN
4) Potassium phthalimide, C₆H₄(CO)₂N^–K⁺
Answer:
4) Potassium phthalimide, C₆H₄(CO)₂N^–K⁺

Question 12.
The best reagent for converting, 2-phenylpropanamide into 1- phenylethanamine is __________
1) excess H₂/Pt
2) NaOH/Br₂
3) NaBH₄/methanol
4) LiAlH₄/ether
Answer:
2) NaOH/Br₂

Question 13.
The best reagent for converting 2-phenylpropanamide into 2-phenylpropanamine is _______
1) excess H₂
2) Br₂ in aqueous NaOH
3) iodine in the presence of red phosphorus
4) LiAlH₄ in ether
Answer:
4) LiAlH₄ in ether

Question 14.
Hoffmann Bromamide Degradation reaction is shown by _______
1) ArNH₂
2) ArCONH₂
3) ArNO₂
4) ArCH₂NH₂
Answer:
2) ArCONH₂

Question 15.
Acetamide is treated with the following reagents separately. Which one of these would yield niethylamine?
1) NaOH+Br₂
2)Sodalime
3) Hot Cone. H₂SO₄
4) PCl₅
Answer:
1) NaOH+Br₂

Question 16.
Methylamine reacts with HNO₂ to form ________
1) CH₃—O—N=0
2) CH₃—O—CH₃
3) CH₃OH
4) CH₃CHO
Answer:
3) CH₃OH

Question 17.
Reduction of aromatic nitro compounds using Fe and HCl gives _________
1) aromatic oxime
2) aromatic hydrocarbon
3) aromatic primary amine
4) aromatic amide
Answer:
3) aromatic primary amine

Question 18.
The reaction

is named as ________
1) Sandmeyer reaction
2) Gatterman reaction
3) Claisen reaction
4) Carbylamine reaction
Answer:
2) Gatterman reaction

Question 19.
Which of the following will be most stable diazonium salt \(\mathrm{RN}_2^{+} \mathrm{X}^{-}\)?
1) \(\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{~N}_2^{+} \mathrm{X}^{-}\)
2) \(\mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_5 \mathrm{~N}_2^{+} \mathrm{X}^{-}\)
3) \(\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{~N}_2^{+} \mathrm{X}^{-}\)
4) \(\mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_5 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{~N}_2^{+} \mathrm{X}^{-}\)
Answer:
2) \(\mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_5 \mathrm{~N}_2^{+} \mathrm{X}^{-}\)

Question 20.
Which of the following statements about primary amines is false?
1) Alkyl amines are stronger bases than aryl amines
2) Alkyl amines react with nitrous acid to produce alcohols.
3) Aryl amines react with nitrous acid to produce phenols
4) Alkyl amines are stronger bases than ammonia
Answer:
3) Aryl amines react with nitrous acid to produce phenols

Question 21.
Which of the following compound will not undergo azo coupling reaction with benzene diazonium chloride.
1) Aniline
2) Phenol
3) Anisole
4) Nitrobenzene
Answer:
4) Nitrobenzene

Question 22.
The correct decreasing order of basic strength of H₂O, NH₃,OH , \(\mathrm{NH}_2^{-}\) species is ________
1) \(\mathrm{NH}_2^{-}\) >OH^–>NH₃ >H₂O
2) OH^– > \(\mathrm{NH}_2^{-}\) > H₂O > NH₃
3) NH₃ > H₂O > \(\mathrm{NH}_2^{-}\) > OH^–
4) H₂O > NH₃ > OH^– >\(\mathrm{NH}_2^{-}\)
Answer:
1) \(\mathrm{NH}_2^{-}\) >OH^–>NH₃ >H₂O

Reviewing AP Inter 2nd Year Economics Study Material Chapter 9 Industry and Service Sectors Questions and Answers can help students prepare confidently for exams.

AP Inter 2nd Year Economics 9th Lesson Industry and Service Sectors Questions and Answers

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Describe Ratna categories of PSUs
Answer:
The Ratna categories are a classification system for Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) in India, designed to grant well-performing companies greater financial and operational autonomy based on specific criteria.
The three main categories are:

• Maharatnas (introduced in 2010) -14 companies
• Navaratnas (introduced in 1997) – 25 companies
• Miniratnas (introduced in 1997) – 73 companies, further divided into Miniratna I and II.

Question 2.
State the objectives of Atma Nirbhar Bharat Abhiyan
Answer:
Objectives of Atma Nirbhar Bharat Abhiyan:
The Atma Nirbhar Bharat Abhiyan (2020) aims to support MSMEs during the pandemic through collateral-free loans, equity infusion and support to stressed units. It also focuses on modernising MSME classification and boosting domestic production through schemes like PLI, with the broader goal of achieving self-reliance and transforming India into a global manufacturing hub.

Question 3.
Explain the forms of FDI.
Answer:
Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in India can take several forms:

1. Buying Shares – Purchasing shares in an Indian company to gain ownership or control.
2. Acquisition-Taking over an existing Indian company.
3. Partnership – Entering into a partnership with an Indian firm.
4. lnvestment Instruments – Investing through debentures, bonds, or venture capital funds.

Question 4.
Explain Maritime Waterways with examples
Answer:
Maritime waterways refer to sea or ocean routes used for domestic and international shipping, carrying about 95% of India’s trade volume and 70% of its value. They are managed by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, with major and minor ports handling trade.
Ex: Transportation of coal, iron ore, crude oil, LPG, machinery and food grains, along with activities like cruise shipping.

Question 5.
How does UDAN scheme achieve its objective?
Answer:
The Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik (UDAN) scheme 2017, achieves its objective of affordable regional air connectivity by capping airfares at ₹ 2,500 for one-hour flights and providing viability gap funding to airlines. It also focuses on developing unserved and underserved airports and expanding routes, thereby connecting remote areas to the national network.

Question 6.
Differentiate between General Insurance and Life Insurance.
Answer:

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Mention any four aspects of Indian industry.
Answer:
Aspects of Indian Industry:
1) Broad Scope of Activities: Industry involves the processing of raw materials and the production of goods, encompassing sectors such as manufacturing, construction, and the supply of electricity, gas, and water. This shows that industry is not limited to factories alone but includes a wide range of productive activities.

2) Economic Support and Growth: It plays a vital role in economic development by supporting agriculture, boosting trade, and creating significant employment opportunities. Thus, industry acts as a key driver of overall economic progress.

3) Foundational Requirements: The success and growth of the industrial sector are heavily dependent on technology, innovations, and competitiveness, as well as access to resources and a workforce of skilled labor and efficient technicians. These factors ensure higher productivity and efficiency.

4) Infrastructure-Based Core industries: A critical segment of the industrial landscape consists of the eight core industries—coal, crude oil, natural gas, refinery products, fertilizers, steel, cement, and electricity, which are considered the backbone of the country’s infrastructure.

Question 2.
Write any four measures taken to promote MSME in India.
Answer:
Measures to Promote MSMEs in India:

1) Credit and Financial Support: The government established specialized institutions and schemes to improve access to finance, including the Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) (1990) and the Credit Guarantee Scheme (CGTMSE) (2000), which provides collateral-free bank loans up to ₹2 crores. This ensures MSMEs get adequate financial assistance.

2) Digital Registration (Udyam Registration): In 2020, the registration process was simplified and digitalized through the Udyam Registration System, which includes a self-declaration facility, making it easier for MSMEs to register and access government incentive schemes.

3) Public Procurement and E-Market Reforms: The Public Procurement Policy (2012) mandates that 25% of government procurement must be sourced from MSMEs. The Government e-Marketplace (GeM) enables MSMEs to sell products directly to government departments, improving market access.

4) Atmanirbhar Bharat Package (2020): This package supports MSMEs through ₹3 lakh crore collateral-free automatic loans, equity infusion via a Fund of Funds, and support for stressed MSME units, helping them sustain and grow.

Question 3.
Explain the significance of Communications sector in Indian economy.
Answer:
Significance of Communication Sector in Indian Economy:
1) Foundation for Development: The communications sector is essential for areas like education, governance, trade, and commerce, as it facilitates the transmission of information through enhanced connectivity. Information and Communications Technology (ICT) has made communication faster and more accessible, transforming how individuals and organization’s function.

2) Support for Other Sectors: It acts as a driving force for agriculture, manufacturing, and services by providing necessary infrastructure. It enables activities such as marketing and efficient logistical coordination, thereby improving overall productivity.

3) Modernization and Technology Adoption: India’s telecom sector has shifted from analog to digital transmission, leading to increased tele-density and widespread use of mobile phones and broadband. It is now adopting advanced technologies like 5G, cloud computing, and virtualization.

4) Global Leadership and Social Development: India’s IT services sector is a major global player, contributing significantly to exports. Additionally, communication technologies improve governance (transparency and efficiency) and support social services like telemedicine, e- health records, and digital education, along with growth in media and broadcasting.

Question 4.
Comment on Make-in India programme.
Answer:
1) The Make in India programme, launched in 2014, is a major initiative aimed at transforming India into a global manufacturing and innovation hub. It encourages both domestic and multinational companies to expand manufacturing in India, covering 25 focus sectors (17 manufacturing and 8 services).

2) The primary objectives are to boost manufacturing output and generate employment opportunities, with targets such as increasing manufacturing’s share in GDP to 25% and creating 100 million jobs.

3) The programme also aims to attract FDl, develop infrastructure, promote innovation and technology, improve ease of doing business, and achieve self-reliance and sustainable development.

4) It is supported by initiatives like Skill India, Startup India, Digital India, PLI Scheme, and infrastructure proiects like NIP and PM Gati Shakti, which together strengthen industrial growth.

Question 5.
Explain the importance of service sector in India.
Answer:
Importance of Service Sector in India:

1. Significant Contribution to GDP: The service sector, also known as the tertiary sector, is a dominant contributor, accounting for more than 55% of India’s GVA. Its growth rate often exceeds the overall economic growth, making it a key driver of the economy.
2. Employment Generation: Although its share in employment is less than 30%, it provides a substantial number of jobs, with strong potential for further employment in areas like IT, tourism, and healthcare.
3. Supporting Other Sectors: The service sector supports agriculture and manufacturing by providing essential services such as logistics, banking, communication, and credit, thereby improving efficiency and productivity.
4. Boosting Exports and Development: It contributes significantly to export earnings, attracts FDI inflows, promotes technological advancement, and improves quality of life through services like education, healthcare, and transport, while also integrating India into the global economy.

Question 6.
Explain India’s Tourism at a glance.
Answer:
India’s Tourism-At a Glance:
1) Growth and Economic Importance: India’s tourism sector is a fast-growing part of the economy that generates direct and indirect employment, foreign exchange, and promotes trade in logistical services. Its growth depends on the availability of high-quality infrastructure such as transport, hotels, and hospitality services.

2) Performance and Key Data: India improved its global ranking from 54th (2021) to 39th (2024) in the Travel and Tourism Development Index. In 2022, foreign tourist arrivals were 6.19 million, domestic visits reached 1,731 million, and foreign exchange earnings were US $16.928 billion, placing India 14th in world tourism receipts.

3) Major Destinations and Contributors: Top source countries include the USA, Bangladesh, and the UK, while Indians travel mainly to the UAE, Saudi Arabia, and USA. Domestically, Uttar Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, and Andhra Pradesh receive the highest visits, and popular monuments include the Taj Mahal, Agra Fort, and Fatehpur Sikri.

4) Government Initiatives: The sector is promoted through measures like ITDC (1966), Tourism Policy (2002), Incredible India campaign, Swadesh Darshan Yojana (2015), E-Visa facilities, railway tourism packages, and tourism awards, which enhance infrastructure and global promotion.

Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the Industrial Policy, 1991.
Answer:
Industrial Policy, 1991: The New Industrial Policy, announced on July 24,1991, was a landmark reform that shifted India’s economy towards Liberalization, Privatization, and Globalization (LPG).

It aimed to reduce government control, increase efficiency, and integrate India with the global economy.

I) Objectives of the Policy: The policy was designed to achieve the following goals:

1. Building on past gains already made within the industrial sector.
2. Correcting distortions or weaknesses in the pattern of industrial growth.
3. Maintaining sustained growth in productivity and gainful employment.
4. Attaining technological dynamism and international competitiveness.

II) Key Features and Decisions

1. Delicensing: Industrial licensing was abolished for almost all industries, except a few such as alcohol, explosives, hazardous chemicals, and defence-related equipment, reducing government control.
2. De-reservation for Public Sector: Industries reserved for the public sector were drastically reduced, with only Atomic Energy and Railways remaining, allowing greater private sector participation.
3. Removal of MRTP Restrictions: Pre-approval under the MRTP Act was removed, and it was later replaced by the Competition Act, with the Competition Commission of India (CCI) ensuring fair competition.
4. Foreign Investment & Technology: FDI limits were increased (from 40% to 51 % and later up to 100% in some sectors), along with automatic approval for foreign technology agreements, encouraging global integration.
5. Public Sector Reforms: Efficient PSUs were given greater autonomy (leading to Ratna categories), while sick units were referred to BIFR for revival or closure.
6. Financial & Location Policy: Industrial location restrictions were relaxed, and the mandatory convertibility clause of loans into equity was abolished, improving financial flexibility.

III. Impact of the Policy (1991-2000):

1. Accelerated Growth: Industries expanded rapidly, especially in sectors like automobiles, pharmaceuticals, IT, and consumer goods, leading to higher production and modernization.
2. Increased Investment: There was a sharp rise in FDI and FII inflows, bringing capital, technology, and global business practices into India.
3. Diversification: New industries such as software and IT services emerged, and private participation increased in sectors like telecom, banking, and insurance, transforming the industrial landscape.
4. Challenges: Despite its success, the policy led to some issues such as jobless growth (growth without sufficient employment), regional imbalances, and unequal distribution of income and wealth.

Question 2.
Explain problems of MSMEs in India.
Answer:
Challanges Faced by MSMEs

1. Financial Constraints

• Limited Access to Credit: MSMEs often struggle to obtain loans from formal institutions due to lack of collateral, strict lending norms, and complex procedures. Many depend on costly informal sources, limiting growth and modernization.
• Delayed Payments: Delays in payments from large companies and government agencies disrupt cash flow and create working capital shortages.
• High Cost of Credit: Even when loans are available, higher interest rates increase financial burden and reduce profitability.

2. Infrastructure Deficiencies

• Poor Infrastructure: Inadequate roads, irregular power supply, water shortages, and weak internet connectivity increase production costs and delay deliveries.
• Limited Access to Resources: MSMEs often face shortages of quality raw materials, skilled labour, and modern technology, restricting expansion.

3. Technological Backwardness

• Outdated Technologies: Use of old machinery and traditional methods results in low efficiency, poor quality, and higher wastage.
• Limited Adoption of New Technologies: High costs and lack of technical knowledge hinder modernization and competitiveness.

4. Skills Gap

• Lack of Skilled Labour: Shortages of workers trained in advanced machinery, digital tools, and modern techniques affect productivity.
• Training and Development Issues: Limited access to skill-development programmes restricts workforce upgradation.

5. Regulatory and Compliance Issues

• Complex Regulations: Compliance with multiple laws is often costly and time-consuming for small enterprises.
• Bureaucracy: Excessive paperwork and delays in approvals hinder business operations and growth.

6. Marketing and Sales Challenges

• Limited Marketing Capabilities: Lack of funds and expertise in branding, advertising, and market research limits market reach.
• Intense Competition: MSMEs face strong competition from large industries, multinational companies, and online retailers.

7. Other Challenges

• Low Productivity: Small-scale production often leads to higher costs and lower efficiency.
• Lack of Standardization: Inconsistent quality control affects product reliability and operational efficiency.
• Limited Information Access: Lack of awareness about market trends, technologies, and government schemes restricts growth.
• External Shocks: Economic crises, pandemics, and natural disasters can severely disrupt MSME operations.

Question 3.
Evaluate the post 2000 scenerio of manufacturing sector.
Answer:
Manufacturing Sector Reforms in India Since 2000: The post-2000 period witnessed a major shift in India’s manufacturing strategy from restrictive policies to infrastructure development, policy reforms, and incentive-based growth.

1. Shift from EPZs to Special Economic Zones (SEZs)

• Export Processing Zones (EPZs) achieved limited success due to rigid regulations. To address this, the government introduced the SEZ Policy (2000) and SEZ Act (2005).
• SEZs offered better infrastructure, tax incentives, and simplified procedures, attracting domestic and foreign investment.
• As a result, 276 operational SEZs generated exports worth 4.47 lakh crore (2024-25) and provided employment to about 31 lakh people.

2. Large-Scale Infrastructure:

• Industrial corridors integrate transport, power, and logistics networks to improve efficiency and reduce costs.
• The National Industrial Corridors Development Corporation (NIDDC) was established in 2016. By 2023, 11 industrial corridors had been announced, including Delhi-Mumbai (DMIC) and Vizag-Chennai (VCIC).
• The PM MITRA Scheme (2021) promotes world-class textile parks with modern infrastructure.

3. National Manufacturing Policy (NMP), 2011

• The NMP aimed to raise manufacturing growth to 12-14%, increase its GDP share to 25%, and create 100 million jobs.
• It introduced National Investment and Manufacturing Zones (NIMZs) with advanced infrastructure.
• These zones encourage industrial investment and employment generation.

4. Make in India and NIIF

• Make in India (2014) seeks to transform India into a global manufacturing hub by promoting investment, innovation, and skill development across 25 sectors.
• National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF) (2015) was established to finance long-term infrastructure projects.
• Together, they strengthen industrial capacity and attract global investors.

5. PLI Scheme and Infrastructure Support

• Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme (2020-21) provides financial incentives for increased production in 14 key sectors, including electronics and pharmaceuticals.
• Initiatives such as the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP) and PM Gati Shakti improve infrastructure and logistics.
• These measures reduce costs and enhance global competitiveness.

6. Current Standing and Challenges

• Despite reforms, India’s share in global manufacturing is about 2.8%, much lower than China’s.
• Infrastructure gaps, skill shortages, and employment challenges continue to limit the sector’s full potential.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Industry Sector includes;
1) Manufacturing
2) Construction
3) Electricity, Gas and Water Supply
4) All the above
Answer:
4) All the above

Question 2.
Which of the following industry does not require to get License:
1) Ammunition
2) Hazardous Chemicals
3) Small Scale Industries
4) Industrial Explosives
Answer:
3) Small Scale Industries

Question 3.
Which of the following Authority regulates Insurance in Indias:
1) RBI
2) IRDA
3) NABARD
4) SIDBI
Answer:
2) IRDA

Question 4.
Make in India Scheme was launched in the year:
1) 2014
2) 2018
3) 2021
4) 2024
Answer:
1) 2014

Question 5.
Limit of MUDRA loan amount to SISHU category:
1) Rs.0.5 lakhs
2) Rs.2.0 lakhs
3) Rs.5.0 lakhs
4) Rs. 10.00 lakhs
Answer:
1) Rs.0.5 lakhs

Question 6.
In which year Golden Quadrangle Programme was lauched?
1) 1999
2) 2001
3) 2014
4) 2024
Answer:
2) 2001

Question 7.
Which is not a core industry?
1) Refinery
2) Cement
3) Fertilisers
4) Textiles
Answer:
4) Textiles

Question 8.
Which of the following statements is correct?
1) MRTP Act was repealed by FEMA
2) The functions of MRTP Act were taken over by CCI
3) Prior to MRTPA restricted Public Sector expansion
4) MRTP companies limits were enhanced in 2002
Answer:
2) The functions of MRTP Act were taken over by CCI

Question 9.
Who are the beneficiaries of Stand-up Scheme?
1) Women entrepreneurs
2) SC and ST entrepreneurs
3) Both (1) and (2)
4) Backward entrepreneurs
Answer:
3) Both (1) and (2)

Question 10.
Number of sectors covered by Production Linked Incentive Scheme covers
1) 8
2) 10
3) 12
4) 14
Answer:
4) 14

Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
PM MITRA is related to ___________ parks
Answer:
Industrial textile

Question 2.
The investment limit for Micro enterprises under 2025 definition is Rs. ?___________ crores.
Answer:
2.5

Question 3.
The newest Railway zone, South Coast Railways, established with as ___________ headquarters.
Answer:
Visakhapatnam

Question 4.
According to Travel and Tourism Index (TTDI) 2024 Report, published by World Economic Forum, India has ranked ___________ among 119 countries
Answer:
39th

Question 5.
Expansion of MUDRA is ___________ Development and Refinance Agency.
Answer:
Micro Unit Development and Refinance Agency

One Word Answers

Question 1.
What is the purpose of Special Economic Zones?
Answer:
Export promotion

Question 2.
In which year P.M Jandhan Yojana introduced?
Answer:
2014

Question 3.
In which fund are the disinvestment proceeds deposited?
Answer:
National Investment Fund

Question 4.
What does Start-up scheme aims to,promote?
Answer:
Promotion of innovations

Question 5.
What is the function of DIPAM?
Answer:
Management of disinvestment

Reviewing AP Inter 2nd Year Economics Study Material Chapter 8 Agriculture and Rural Development Questions and Answers can help students prepare confidently for exams.

AP Inter 2nd Year Economics 8th Lesson Agriculture and Rural Development Questions and Answers

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define a major irrigation project.
Answer:
A major irrigation project is an irrigation project with a Cultivable Command Area (CCA) of more than 10,000 hectares. It involves large-scale infrastructure like dams and reservoirs to store and distribute water.
Ex: Srisailam, Pulichintala, Polavaram.

Question 2.
What do you understand by Jeevamrut in farming?
Answer:
Jeevamrut is a microbial culture used in farming to enhance soil fertility and increase microbial activity in the soil. It is a key component of Zero Budget Natural Farming (ZBNF) and promotes sustainable, chemical-free agriculture.

Question 3.
What are the TOP crops?
Answer:
TOP crops refer to Tomato, Onion, and Potato. These are important crops that often face price fluctuations and are given special focus for production and marketing.

Question 4.
What is meant by the term ‘Rainbow Revolution’ in agriculture?
Answer:
The Rainbow Revolution is a collective term describing the growth of agriculture through diversification into various allied activities . It represents different agricultural revolutions like Green, White, Blue, Yellow, etc., ensuring overall development of agriculture.

Question 5.
What is the aim of Prime Minister Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana?
Answer:
The aim of the Prime Minister Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana (PMDDKY) is to enhance agricultural productivity, promote crop diversification, and encourage sustainable farming practices along with improving irrigation and post-harvest storage.

Question 6.
Explain the Modified Interest Subvention Scheme (MISS)?
Answer:
The Modified Interest Subvention Scheme (MISS) is a government initiative that provides short-term crop loans to farmers through Kisan Credit Cards (KCC) at subsidized interest rates. It aims to ensure affordable farm credit and encourage timely repayment of loans.

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Write about the types of land reforms implemented in Indian agriculture.
Answer:
Types of Land Reforms in Indian Agriculture:
1) Abolition of Intermediaries: This reform focused on the abolition of the Zamindari system, where Madras state passed the first legislation in 1917, and Uttar Pradesh implemented it in 1952, resulting in tenants becoming owners as land ownership was transferred directly to cultivators, making it a fully successful reform.

2) Tenancy Reforms: These reforms were implemented to protect tenant farmers with uncertain tenure and non-fixed rents by providing ownership rights to long-term tenants, security of tenure against eviction, and regulation of rent.

3) Land Ceiling: Land ceiling refers to a legal maximum limit on land ownership, where surplus land is acquired and distributed to marginal farmers, landless labourers, and SCs/STs, with limits such as 18 acres (wetland two crops), 27 acres (wetland one crop), and 54 acres (dry land), while plantations (tea, coffee, rubber) b and religious lands are exempted.

4) Consolidation of Holdings: This reform aimed to consolidate fragmented land holdings into viable units through legislation and cooperative farming, encouraging farmers to pool land and resources to overcome small and scattered holdings.

Question 2.
Write the impact of the Green Revolution on Indian economy.
Answer:
Impact of Green Revolution on Indian Economy:
The Green Revolution brought substantial quantitative and qualitative changes in the Indian economy by helping the country achieve self-sufficiency in food grain production.

• It led to a massive increase in food grain production, rising from 82 million tonnes in 1965 to 329.7 million tonnes by FY23.
• There was a rise in commercial crops and adoption of new farm techniques, improving overall agricultural output.
• It created enhanced employment opportunities due to multiple cropping and labour- intensive practices. „
• It strengthened forward and backward linkages with industries by supplying raw materials and using Inputs like fertilizers and machinery.
• It improved rural living standards, increasing farmers’ income and MPCE.
• The electronic National Agriculture Market (e-NAM) is a pan-India electronic trading

Question 3.
What is meant by regulated markets? State it’s objectives.
Answer:
Regulated markets, also known as Agricultural Produce Market Committees (APMCs), are wholesale markets established under state-level legislation to ensure fair trade between farmers and buyers. These markets are governed by State Agricultural Marketing Boards, where buying and selling are supervised by Market Committees.

Objectives of Regulated Markets:

1. To eliminate malpractices carried out by middlemen and traders.
2. To ensure fair pricing and better market access so farmers receive proper value for their produce.
3. To maintain transparency in transactions between farmers and buyers.
4. To ensure quality control and grading of agricultural products.
5. To provide prompt payment to farmers after sale.
6. To ensure standardized weights and measures.
7. To provide infrastructure facilities like storage and transport.
8. To reduce marketing costs for farmers.

Question 4.
Write a note on “e-NAM”.
Answer:
e-NAM:

1. The electronic National Agriculture Market (e-NAM) is a pan-India electronic trading portal launched by the Government of India in 2016 to create a unified national market for agricultural commodities.
2. It is a virtual platform that integrates existing physical wholesale mandis across States and UTs to facilitate online trading of agricultural goods.
3. The primary objective of e-NAM is to enable farmers to secure better prices through a transparent price discovery mechanism. It is implemented by the Small Farmers Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC) under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare.
4. As of June 30,2025,1,522 mandis have been onboarded, over 1.79 crore farmers are registered, and the total trade value has reached14,39,941 crore
5. e-NAM promotes efficient and transparent agricultural marketing while reducing the role of exploitative middlemen.

Question 5.
Comment on any two measures taken for rural development in India.
Answer:
Measures for Rural Development in India:

1) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY):

• Launched in 2000, this flagship scheme aims to provide all-weather road connectivity to previously unconnected rural habitations.
• Improved road connectivity has significantly enhanced access to markets, healthcare, and education, thereby reducing isolation of rural areas.
• It has also boosted rural employment and encouraged non-farm activities, contributing to overall economic growth.
• The programme has connected over 1.7 lakh habitations and constructed about 17.5 lakh kilometers of roads, with recent phases focusing on green and climate-resilient infrastructure.

2) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA):

• Launched in 2006, this scheme provides a legal guarantee of 100 days of wage employment per year to rural households willing to do unskilled manual work.
• It promotes social inclusion by ensuring employment opportunities for SCs, STs, and women, thereby reducing poverty and income inequality.
• In 2023-24, about 1.23 crore households were provided employment generating 16.34 crore person-days of work.
• In addition to income support, the scheme has led to the creation of durable rural assets (about 9.06 crore), improving infrastructure and long-term productivity in rural areas.

Question 6.
Write any four institutional sources of agriculture credit in India.
Answer:
Institutional Sources of Agricultural Credit in India:

1) Cooperative Credit Societies: This is a three-tier system consisting of Primary Agriculture Cooperative Credit Societies (PACs) at the village level, District Central Cooperative Banks (DCBs) at the district level, and State Cooperative Banks (SCBs) at the state level. These institutions mainly provide short-term and medium-term farm credit for inputs like seeds, fertilizers, and irrigation, and are especially useful for small and marginal farmers due to their local presence.

2) Commercial Banks: Commercial banks provide short, medium, and long-term agricultural credit for various purposes such as crop production, purchase of machinery, and land development. They are mandated by the RBI to allocate 18% of their Priority Sector Lending to agriculture, and they dominate long-term credit with about 59% share, making them a major source of institutional finance.

3) Regional Rural Banks (RRBs): Established in 1975, RRBs provide credit at low interest rates in rural and semi-urban areas. Their main objective is to support small and marginal farmers, agricultural labourers, and rural artisans, thereby promoting financial inclusion and rural development. They bridge the gap between commercial banks and rural borrowers.

4) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD): Established in 1982, NABARD is the apex institution for agricultural and rural credit. It does not lend directly to farmers but provides refinance and financial support to state governments, cooperative banks, and RRBs. It also promotes Self-Help Groups (SHGs) and Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs), strengthening the rural credit system and encouraging sustainable agriculture.

Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the various agriculture-allied activities in Indian economy.
Answer:
Agriculture Allied Activities in Indian Economy:
Agriculture includes several allied activities beyond crop cultivation, such as horticulture, animal husbandry, dairying, and fisheries. These activities support food security, employment, income generation, exports, and reduce dependence on seasonal farming.

1) Horticulture and Floriculture

• Horticulture involves the production of fruits, vegetables, flowers, and spices. It is a high-value sector that provides higher income per unit of land. India is the second-largest producer of fruits and vegetables.
• Floriculture, known as a “sunrise industry,” enjoys 100% export-oriented status and offers high profit potential. It generates employment in cultivation, processing, and marketing.

2) Fisheries and Aquaculture

• Fisheries include inland and marine fish production, while aquaculture involves the breeding and rearing of aquatic organisms.
• India is the second-largest fish and aquaculture producer, contributing about 8% of global fish production.
• The sector provides livelihood to over 2.8 crore fishers, ensures nutritional security, and earned ₹ 63,969 crore through exports in 2022-23.
• Schemes like PMMSY improve infrastructure, productivity, and fishers’ welfare.

3) Dairy Farming:

• Dairy farming deals with the production of milk and milk products. India is the largest producer and consumer of milk, contributing about 24-25% of global production.
• It is a major source of rural livelihood and provides regular income to farmers.
• Dairy also improves nutrition, with per capita milk availability around 450 grams per day in 2022-23.

4) Other Allied Activities

• Animal Husbandry: Rearing livestock for milk, meat, and other products.
• Forestry: Provides timber, fuel, and ecological benefits.
• Poultry, Beekeeping, and Sericulture: Require low investment, generate employment, and support exports.

5) Rainbow Revolution

• The Rainbow Revolution represents the growth of diversified agricultural sectors such as White Revolution (milk), Blue Revolution (fish), Golden Revolution (horticulture and honey), and Silver Revolution (eggs).
• It has increased farmers’ income, reduced poverty, strengthened food and nutritional security,
  and promoted sustainable agricultural development.

Question 2.
Explain about the Minimum Support Prices in Agriculture.
Answer:
Minimum Support Prices (MSPs) in Agriculture:
Minimum Support Prices (MSPs) are guaranteed prices announced by the Government of India for selected crops to protect farmers from price fluctuations and ensure a minimum income. MSP provides price assurance and encourages agricultural production.

1) Recommending Authority

• The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) recommends MSPs. It was established as the Agricultural Prices Commission in 1965 and renamed in 1985.
• The CACP studies production costs, market conditions, and other economic factors before recommending MSPs, which are announced before the sowing season.

2) Calculation Methodology
MSP is determined by estimating production costs and adding a profit margin. The main cost concepts are:

• A2 Cost: Includes direct expenses such as seeds, fertilizers, pesticides, hired labour, fuel, and irrigation.
• A2 + FL Cost: Includes A2 plus the value of unpaid family labour. MSP is generally fixed at least 50% above this cost.
• C2 Cost: Includes A2 + FL along with rental value of owned land and interest on fixed capital. The Swaminathan Committee recommended MSP at least 50% above C2.
  This system helps farmers recover costs and earn a reasonable return.

3) Factors Considered in Determination

• Market trends and demand, to balance supply and avoid surplus or shortage.
• Inter-crop price parity, to maintain a proper price relationship between different crops.
• Inflation and overall economic conditions, ensuring MSP keeps pace with rising costs.
• Terms of Trade (ToT) between agriculture and other sectors.
• Recommendations of expert committees and policy bodies.

4) Implementation and Related Schemes

• Price Support Scheme (PSS): Procurement of pulses, oilseeds, and cotton when market prices fall below MSP.
• Market Intervention Scheme (MIS): Support for perishable crops like onions and tomatoes during sharp price declines.
• PM-AASHA: Ensures better MSP realization through procurement and price support measures.

Question 3.
What are the causes for low productivity in agriculture in India? Suggest some measures to improve it.
Answer:
Agricultural productivity refers to the average output or yield per hectare of land. Though productivity has improved since Independence, it remains low compared to global standards due to several structural, institutional, and technological constraints.

I) Causes for Low Productivity in Agriculture

I) Small and Fragmented Landholdings

• The average landholding size is only about 0.74 hectares (2021 -22), and nearly 90% of farmers are small or marginal farmers.
• Small and scattered holdings make the use of modern machinery and scientific farming uneconomical.

2) Monsoon Dependency:

• About 50-60% of agricultural land depends on rainfall.
• Irregular monsoons, droughts, and floods cause unstable production, making agriculture a “gamble on monsoon.”

3) Traditional Farming Techniques

• Many farmers still use traditional methods and low levels of mechanization.
• This leads to inefficient use of resources and low productivity.

4) Land Tenure and Historical Neglect

• During the British period, agriculture, especially irrigation, received little attention.
• Unequal land distribution and insecure tenancy discouraged investment in land improvement.

5) Subsistence Farming and Disguised Unemployment

• Most farmers produce mainly for self-consumption rather than the market.
• Excess labour in agriculture results in disguised unemployment and low labour productivity.

II) Measures to Improve Agricultural Productivity

• Green Revolution: Introduction of HYV seeds, fertilizers, pesticides, and mechanization significantly increased agricultural production, particularly of wheat and rice.
• Expansion of Irrigation: Development of irrigation projects and schemes like PM Krishi Sinchayee Yojana reduce rainfall dependence and improve water-use efficiency.
• Land Reforms: Abolition of intermediaries, tenancy reforms, and consolidation of holdings promote efficient land use and adoption of modern practices.
• Institutional Credit: Credit through Commercial Banks, RRBs, Cooperatives, and Kisan Credit Cards (KCC) enables farmers to invest in better inputs and technology.
• Subsidies and Extension Services: Subsidized seeds, fertilizers, electricity, and farmer training programs help reduce costs and encourage scientific farming.
• Recent Mission-Mode Initiatives:
  • PM Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana (PMDDKY): Improves productivity in underperforming districts.
  • PM-RAFTAAR: Promotes agri-entrepreneurship and infrastructure development.
  • PKVY and Zero Budget Natural Farming (ZBNF): Encourage sustainable, low-cost farming and improve long-term soil health.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
According to the Economic survey 2024-25, the per capita net availability of food grains in 2022-23 (in grams):
1) 468.11
2) 520,56
3) 511.7
4) 568.8
Answer:
4) 568.8

Question 2.
Who is considered as the father of Green Revolution?
1) M.S. Swaminathan
2) Prof.Norman Borlog
3) W.S.Gaud
4) B.F.John & J. Cowrie
Answer:
2) Prof.Norman Borlog

Question 3.
What are the two Umbrella Schemes approved by the Union Cabinet on 03-10-2024 for rationalisation of all centrally sponsored schemes operating under the Ministry of Agriculture and farmers?
1) Krishonnati Yojana (KY) and PM RKVYRAFTAR
2) PM-KISSAN and PM RKVY RAFTAR
3) PM-KUSUM and PM RKVY RAFTAR
4) Krishonnati Yojana (KY) and PM – KISSAN
Answer:
1) Krishonnati Yojana (KY) and PM RKVYRAFTAR

Question 4.
In the Union budget 2025-26, the enhanced loan limit of the Kisan Credit Card (KCC) is:
1) 3 lakhs
2) 4 lakhs
3) 5 lakhs
4) 6 lakhs
Answer:
3) 5 lakhs

Question 5.
Which of the following commissions recommends Minimum Support Prices (MSPs):
1) The Commission for Agriculture Costs (CAC)
2) The Commission for Agriculture Costs and Prices (CACP)
3) The Commission for Agriculture Prices (CAP)
4) The Commission for Agriculture Marketing (CAM)
Answer:
2) The Commission for Agriculture Costs and Prices (CACP)

Question 6.
Which of the following is identified as a sunrise industry with 100 export-oriented status?
1) Sericulture
2) Floriculture
4) Pisciculture
4) Dairy
Answer:
2) Floriculture

Question 7.
Which of the following statements is correct?
1) India is the world’s largest producer of milk.
2) India is the largest consumer of milk.
3) India is the largest producer of dairy products.
4) All three are true
Answer:
4) All three are true

Question 8.
The scheme that was launched to provide electricity for domestic consumption as well as for agriculture is
1) PM-KUSUM
2) PGGCY
3) PM-JAY
4) SAUBHAGYA
Answer:
4) SAUBHAGYA

Question 9.
Feature of a mission mode programme:
1) Fixed timeframe
2) Target driven with a specific problem or challenge
3) Measurable outcome
4) All three of the above
Answer:
4) All three of the above

Question 10.
RAFTAAR scheme aims to:
1) Make agriculture more remunerative
2) Increase productivity of food crops
3) Intervene to support farmers when prices of food crops fall
4) Protect agriculture from disasters.
Answer:
1) Make agriculture more remunerative

Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
______________ committee recommended for the establishment of the NABARD.
Answer:
Sivaranman Committee

Question 2.
PM-KUSUM scheme provides ______________ security to farmers.
Answer:
energy

Question 3.
______________ is an apex bank for providing credit to agriculture sector.
Answer:
NABARD

Question 4.
______________scheme was launched to finance marketing and post harvest infrastructure.
Answer:
Agri Infrastructure fund

Question 5.
______________ Revolution relates to the production of oil seeds.
Answer:
Yellow

One Word Answers

Question 1.
What do you call the surplus of produce available to the farmers after meeting all their requirements?
Answer:
Marketable surplus

Question 2.
Which agency implements eNAM?
Answer:
Small Farmers Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC)

Question 3.
Which scheme has been started by the Government of India for promoting organic farming?
Answer:
Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY)

Question 4.
What do you call the practice under natural farming, to provide natural treatment to seeds?
Answer:
Beejamrut

Question 5.
What is the motto of Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana’?
Answer:
Har Khet Ko Pani

Reviewing AP Inter 2nd Year Economics Study Material Chapter 7 Planning and Economic Reforms Questions and Answers can help students prepare confidently for exams.

AP Inter 2nd Year Economics 7th Lesson Planning and Economic Reforms Questions and Answers

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Distinguish between Liberlization and Privatization.
Answer:

Question 2.
Gadgil formula.
Answer:

1. The Gadgil Formula (1969), named after D.R. Gadgil, was used by the Planning Commission to allocate central plan assistance to States during Five-Year Plans.
2. It distributes funds based on criteria such as population, per capita income, performance, tax effort, and special problems of states.

Question 3.
Explain about ‘FEMA’.
Answer:

1. FEMA (Foreign Exchange Management Act), 1999 replaced the earlier FERA (1973) and came into force in June 2000.
2. Its main objective is to facilitate external trade and payments and to promote the orderly development and management of the foreign exchange market in India.

Question 4.
National Investment Fund.
Answer:

1. The National Investment Fund (NIF) was established in 2005 to receive proceeds from disinvestment of public sector enterprises.
2. Its funds are used to support government developmental schemes and programmes.

Question 5.
What is Mahalanobis model?
Answer:

1. The Mahalanobis Model, developed by P.C. Mahalanobis, was used in India’s Second Five-Year Plan (1956-61) and focused on rapid industrialization.
2. It gave priority to heavy and capital goods industries to promote long-term economic growth.

Question 6.
Mention any two WTO agreements signed by India.
Answer:
Two WTO agreements signed by India are:

1. Agreement on Agriculture (AoA)
2. Trade Related Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPs)

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Discuss any four failures of planning in India.
Answer:
1) Regional Disparities: The plans failed to achieve balanced regional development. Developed states like Goa, Sikkim, and Telangana have higher incomes, whereas BIMARU states (Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh) remain backward.

2) Unemployment: Despite the implementation of various employment schemes over the years, the plans have not been able to resolve the problem of unemployment.

As per the data, the unemployment rate stood at 5.6% (May 2025), with a slightly higher rate among women (5.8%) compared to men (5.6%), reflecting continued employment challenges.

3) Persistence of Poverty: Poverty remains a major challenge despite years of economic planning. According to the data, while the poverty rate was 16.22% in 2011 -12 under an earlier measure, using a new poverty line of $ 3.00 per day shows that about 75.2 million people still live below the poverty line, indicating the persistence of poverty.

4) Increasing Inequalities: Following the introduction of economic reforms like liberalization and privatization, inequalities in wealth and income have increased. The data shows that the top 10% of the population holds more than 50% of the total income, while the bottom 50% shares less than 15%, highlighting a significant gap between rich and poor.

Question 2.
Write a brief note on WTO.
Answer:
1) The World Trade Organization (WTO) is an inter-governmental organization that regulates international trade among member countries. It was established on January 1,1995, replacing GATT, under the Marrakesh Agreement signed in 1994. Its headquarters are in Geneva, Switzerland, and India is a founder member.

2. The WTO performs important functions such as facilitating trade, providing a platform for negotiations, settling trade disputes, monitoring trade policies, and offering technical assistance to member nations.

3. Member countries sign various agreements like Agreement on Agriculture (AoA), TRIPs, GATS, and TRIMs, which regulate different aspects of global trade.

4. The impact on India includes benefits such as increased exports, economic growth, and higher inflow of FDI and Fll, along with challenges like pressure on subsidies, issues related to patents, and increased competition for small-scale industries.

Question 3.
Briefly explain the major initiatives of NITI Aayog for Indian economic development.
Answer:
NITI Aayog has launched several key initiatives to transform India into a dynamic, knowledge based, and inclusive society through a decentralized and collaborative approach.

1) Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs): NITI Aayog aligned India’s development agenda with the United Nations’ SDGs and developed a National Indicator Framework to track progress on these goals.

2) Atal Innovation Mission (AIM): This initiative promotes innovation and entrepreneurship among youth through Atal Tinkering Labs, Incubation Centers, and Community Innovation Centers, strengthening the startup ecosystem.

3) Aspirational Districts Programme: Launched in January 2018, it focuses on the rapid development of 112 backward districts in areas like agriculture, infrastructure, education, health, and nutrition.

4) Strategic Planning Framework: NITI Aayog replaced Five-Year Plans with a flexible, data- driven framework including a Three-Year Action Agenda, Seven-Year Strategy, and Fifteen- Year Vision.

5) Digital Transformation: It promotes digital governance through initiatives like Digital India, Digital Payments, and Digital Health to improve efficiency and service delivery.

Question 4.
State the differences between planning commission and NITI Aayog.
Answer:
Differences between planning commission and NITI Aayog:

Question 5.
Discuss any four measures towards Globalization.
Answer:
Globalization refers to the process of integrating India’s domestic economy with the world economy by relaxing restrictions on international trade.

Four measures towards Globalization:
1) Devaluation of the Rupee: To boost exports and reduce trade deficit, the rupee was devalued in July 1991 in two stages (9% and 11%), making Indian goods cheaper in the global market.

2) Convertibility of Rupee in Current Account: refers to the facility that allows foreign exchange earnings to be freely converted into Indian currency for trade-related transactions. This system was introduced in stages from 1992, where initially 60% was converted at the market rate and 40% at the official rate, and it achieved full convertibility in 1993.

3) Reduction of Import Tariffs: The government reduced custom duties significantly (from 150% in 1991 to 10% by 2007) to promote international trade.

4) Removal of Quantitative Restrictions on Imports: Physical limits on imports were removed, with 2,144 goods freed from restrictions between 1997 and 2001, encouraging free trade.

Question 6.
Explain the difference between stabilization policies and structural adjustment measures under economic reforms.
Answer:
Difference between stabilization policies and structural adjustment:

Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain major achievements of economic planning in India.
Answer:
Economic planning in India (1951-2017) through the Twelve Five-Year Plans brought structural transformation, modernization, and economic growth. India emerged as one of the world’s largest economies due to planned development.

1) Increased Economic Growth: Economic planning helped India overcome the slow “Hindu Rate of Growth” of about 3.5% during the early decades. Through investment, industrialization, and infrastructure development, the growth rate increased to around 7% by the Twelfth Plan. Several plans also achieved or exceeded their growth targets.

2) Agricultural Production and Food Security: Planning transformed agriculture through land reforms, irrigation expansion, and the Green Revolution. Foodgrain production increased from 50.8 million tonnes in 1950-51 to 275 million tonnes in 2016-17, making India largely self-sufficient in food. The Rainbow Revolution also boosted milk, fish, and egg production.

3) Industrial Progress: The Second Five-Year Plan laid the foundation for industrialization by promoting basic and capital goods industries. Coal and crude oil production increased significantly, while electricity generation rose from 5 bkw in 1951 to 1236 bkw in 2016-17, strengthening the industrial base.

4) Development of Infrastructure: Infrastructure expanded considerably. Railway networks, roads, and ports grew rapidly, improving connectivity and trade. Tele-density crossed 90% due to the telecom revolution. Bank nationalization and modern payment systems such as UPI enhanced financial inclusion and efficiency.

5) Social Services and Quality of Life: Planning improved education, health, and living standards. Literacy increased from 18.3% to about 74%, health indicators improved, and poverty declined from around 50% in the 1950s to 21.9% by 2011 -12.

6) Science, Technology, and Trade Development: India diversified exports from primary products to manufactured goods and IT services. The share of trade in GDP increased significantly. Major achievements were also made in space research, nuclear energy, biotechnology, and satellite technology, enhancing India’s global competitiveness.

Conclusion: Economic planning played a crucial role in promoting growth, food security, industrialization, infrastructure, social welfare, and technological advancement, laying the foundation for modern India’s development.

Question 2.
State the causes of regional imbalances and explain the measures taken during the plan period to achieve balanced regional development in India.
Answer:
Balanced regional development is a strategy that promotes equal development across all regions to reduce variations in indicators like Net State Domestic Product (NSDP) and per capita income.

I) Causes of Regional Imbalances:

1. Natural Resource Endowments: There are disparities in the availability of land, forests, and water resources, which lead to uneven development across regions.
2. Climatic Conditions: Differences in rainfall and extreme geographical conditions, such as desert regions of Rajasthan and flood-prone areas of Assam and Bihar, hinder uniform development.
3. Infrastructure Deficiencies: Many backward regions suffer from a lack of basic infrastructure like transport, power, irrigation, and communication facilities.
4. Historical Factors: Certain regions remained underdeveloped due to neglect and misgovernance during British rule.
5. Geographical Diversity: Difficult terrains such as hilly regions (North-East, Himalayas) and drought-prone areas (Bundelkhand, Vidarbha) create barriers to development.

II) Measures Taken During the Plan Period:

1. Resource Transfer through Central Assistance: The Central government provided greater financial assistance to backward states by increasing their share in fund allocation.
2. Special Category Status: Some states were given special category status to receive additional central assistance for development projects.
3. Backward Region Grant Fund (BGRF): Established in 2007, this fund aimed to develop 250 backward districts by providing targeted financial support.
4. Gadgil Formula: Introduced from the Fourth Plan, it allocated funds based on criteria like per capita income and special problems, ensuring support to poorer states.
5. Area-Based Development Programmes: Specific programmes like Drought Prone Area Development Programme (1973) and Hill Area Development Programme (1974) targeted regions with unique challenges.
6. Industrial Incentives and Infrastructure Development: The government promoted industrial corridors, Special Economic Zones (SEZs), and offered subsidies and tax concessions to attract industries and MSMEs to backward regions.

Question 3.
Discuss the measures taken under privatization as a part of economic reforms.
Answer:
Privatization refers to the transfer of ownership, management, or control of public sector enterprises (PSEs) to the private sector, either fully or partially. It was a major component of the 1991 economic reforms, introduced to improve efficiency, reduce government burden, and promote competitiveness in the economy.

Measures Taken under Privatization:
1. Disinvestment: Disinvestment involves the sale of a part of the government’s shares in PSUs to private investors or the public. Introduced through the Industrial Policy of 1991, it aimed to reduce the financial burden on the government and improve PSU performance through private participation.

2. Institutional Mechanisms: To implement privatization effectively, several institutions were created:

• Disinvestment Committee (1992) under Dr. C. Rangarajan recommended selling up to 49% of shares in most PSUs.
• In 1996, PSUs were classified into strategic and non-strategic sectors.
• In 1999, the Department of Disinvestment was established, later renamed DIPAM in 2016. These measures ensured systematic and transparent implementation of privatization.

3. National Investment Fund (NIF): Established in 2005, the NIF received proceeds from disinvestment and utilized them for developmental and social welfare programmes instead of routine government expenditure.

4. Transfer of Management and Control: Privatization also involved transferring management through contracts, leases, and franchises. This enabled private firms to introduce better technology, efficient management, and improved productivity.

5. Examples of Disinvestment: Major PSUs such as NTPC, Maruti Udyog Limited, Power Grid Corporation, Coal India Limited, and Shipping Corporation of India underwent disinvestment, reflecting the wide scope of privatization across sectors.

6. Overall Impact and Concerns: Privatization improved efficiency, competition, and reduced political interference. However, concerns remained regarding labour security, possible job losses, and’excessive profit orientation.

Conclusion: Privatization, through disinvestment, institutional reforms, and transfer of management, played a key role in enhancing efficiency and competitiveness in the Indian economy.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which five-year plan has poverty eradication as its objective?
1) Second
2) Fifth
3) Eight
4) Tenth
Answer:
2) Fifth

Question 2.
he term ‘Hindu rate of growth” was first used by:
1) Raj Krishna
2) Mahalanobis
3) K.N.Raj
4) Gadgil
Answer:
3) K.N.Raj

Question 3.
Which of the following measures can be called stabilization measure?
1) Delicensing
2) Disinvestment
3) Elimination of QRs
4) Rupee devaluation
Answer:
4) Rupee devaluation

Question 4.
Which statement best reflects the principle of globalization?
1) Subsidizing domestic agriculture to promote exports
2) Export tariff discrimination between developed and developing countries
3) Entering into trade agreements with member countries
4) Import substitution and export promotion through non-tariff restrictions
Answer:
3) Entering into trade agreements with member countries

Question 5.
The name associated with Rolling Plan in India was:
1) D.R. Gadgil
2) Dr. Manmohan Singh
3) Prof. Lakdawalla
4) Montek Singh Ahluwalia
Answer:
3) Prof. Lakdawalla

Question 6.
Bombay Plan was prepared in 1943 by:
1) M.N. Roy
2) Jayaprakash Narayana
3) M. Visweswaraiah
4) 8 Industrialists
Answer:
4) 8 Industrialists

Question 7.
Conditions that forced India to introduce economic reforms in 1991 did not included
1) Fiscal Deficit
2) Debt Burden
3) Unfavourable Balance of Payments
4) Fall in Aggregate Demand
Answer:
4) Fall in Aggregate Demand

Question 8.
BIMARU states do not include:
1) Uttar Pradesh
2) Maharashtra
3) Madhya Pradesh
4) Rajasthan
Answer:
2) Maharashtra

Question 9.
The Strategy Document prepared by NITI Aayog covers a period of:
1) 3 years
2) 5 years
3) 7 years
4) 15 years
Answer:
3) 7 years

Question 10.
Most Favoured Nation (MFN) principle of the WTO:
1) Allows preferential treatment among selected nations
2) Ruled out preferential treatment among trading nations
3) Imposes tariffs specific to certain products
4) Prefers certain nations over others in case of textile exports
Answer:
2) Ruled out preferential treatment among trading nations

Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
20-point Economic Programme was revised in 2006 and aligned to ____________.
Answer:
National Common Minimum Programme

Question 2.
The amount allocated to each Member of parliament under MPLADS scheme is Rs ____________ crores (from 2011).
Answer:
5

Question 3.
The letter ‘B’ in DBT scheme stands for ____________.
Answer:
Benefit

Question 4.
The Department responsible for handling disinvestment in India is called ____________.
Answer:
DIPAM

Question 5.
The Mission launched by NITI Aayog to promote a culture of innovation and entrepreneurship is the ____________.
Answer:
Atal Innovation Mission (AIM)

One Word Answers

Question 1.
Name the institution which fosters cooperative federalism in economic development?
Answer:
NITI Aayog

Question 2.
Which is provided to implement the Externally Aided Projects (EAP’s)?
Answer:
Additional central assistance

Question 3.
Highest growth rate was achieved in which five year plan?
Answer:
11th plan

Question 4.
Which Account of the Balance of Payments allows full convertibility of rupee?
Answer:
Current Account

Question 5.
What is the theme of the twelfth five-year plan?
Answer:
Faster, Sustainable and more inclusive growth.

Reviewing AP Inter 2nd Year Economics Study Material Chapter 6 Unemployment, Poverty and Inequalities Questions and Answers can help students prepare confidently for exams.

AP Inter 2nd Year Economics 6th Lesson Unemployment, Poverty and Inequalities Questions and Answers

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Differentiate between underemployment and disguised unemployment?
Answer:

Question 2.
What is the calorie-norm with reference to poverty line recommended by Alagh committee?
Answer:
Calorie Norm (Alagh Committee – 1979): The poverty line based on daily calorie intake.

1. Rural areas: 2400 kcal per person per day
2. Urban areas: 2100 kcal per person per day

Question 3.
Distinguish between income poor and MPI poor?
Answer:

Question 4.
Explain the concept and purpose of international poverty line.
Answer:

• The international poverty line is a global standard used to measure poverty across countries, expressed in Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) dollars.
• Purpose: It helps to compare poverty levels internationally and assess progress in reducing global poverty.

Question 5.
Modified mixed recall period.
Answer:
Modified Mixed Recall Period (MMRP):

1. MMRP is a method used to estimate consumption expenditure by using different recall periods for different items.
2. Short recall (7 days) is used for frequently purchased items, while long recall (365 days) is used for infrequently purchased items to get more accurate data.

Question 6.
How does the Orange Economy create employment opportunities?
Answer:
Orange Economy – Employment Creation:

1. The Orange Economy creates employment by promoting creative and cultural industries, turning ideas and talent into economic activities.
2. Being labour-intensive, it provides large-scale job opportunities, particularly for youth and women.

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain any four types of unemployment.
Answer:
Types of Unemployment:
1) Involuntary Unemployment (Open Unemployment): This occurs when individuals are willing and able to work at current wage rates but cannot find jobs due to lack of employment opportunities. Ex: A group of diploma holders remaining unemployed after applying jobs for various companies because there are no vacant positions available in local companies.

2) Structural Unemployment: This is caused by long-term changes in the economy, leading to a mismatch between workers’ skills and job requirements.
Ex: Web developers losing jobs due to Artificial Intelligence (Al) tools.

3) Seasonal Unemployment: This arises in industries that operate only during specific seasons, like agriculture or sugar industry, where workers remain unemployed during the off-season. Ex: Agricultural workers unemployed after the harvesting season.

4) Disguised Unemployment: This occurs when more people are employed than required, and some workers have zero marginal productivity, meaning their removal does not reduce output. It is common in Indian agriculture.
Ex: Extra family members working on a small farm where fewer workers are sufficient.

Question 2.
Explain the different reference periods in measuring unemployment.
Answer:
1) Usual Status (US): Measures unemployment over a reference period of 365 days preceding the survey. It is used to capture long-term or chronic unemployment. Under this, a person is classified as Principal Status (PS) if he worked for more than 183 days, and Subsidiary Status (SS) he worked occasionally or part-time during the year.

2) Current Weekly Status (CWS): Uses a 7-day reference period preceding the survey. It helps to identify short-term or temporary unemployment and weekly fluctuations in employment. A person is considered employed if they worked for at least one hour on at least one day during the week.
Ex: A young man who found gig work for 2 days in the previous week would be considered employed under CWS, even though he was jobless for the remaining 5 days of that week.

3) Current Daily Status (CDS): Considers each day of the 7 days preceding the survey . It is the most sensitive measure of labour underutilization, especially in rural and informal sectors. It records daily employment status, capturing partial and intermittent work by counting the number of days a person was employed or unemployed.
Ex: A woman who worked as a daily wage labourer for 3 days out of 7 days is recorded as employed for 3 days and unemployed for 4 days, providing a detailed view of partial and intermittent work.

Question 3.
What are the different types of poverty?
Answer:
Types of Poverty:

1. Absolute Poverty: This is a condition where individuals lack basic necessities required for survival with human dignity, such as food, water, clothing, shelter, education, and healthcare. It is mainly seen in developing countries.
2. Relative Poverty: This refers to people living below the average standard of living of their society, highlighting economic inequality and social exclusion, mostly in developed countries.
3. Generational Poverty: This is a long-term condition where poverty is passed from one generation to another, caused by lack of access to education, assets, and skills over time.
4. Situational Poverty: This is a temporary poverty caused by sudden events like natural disasters, job loss, war, or death of an earning member (Ex: COVID-19 impact).

Question 4.
Explain the Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI), its indicators, and India’s progress from 2005-06 to 2019-21.
Answer:
Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI): It was developed by OPHI and UNDP (2010).
In India, MPI is prepared by NITI Aayog. It is a comprehensive measure that captures multiple deprivations across various aspects of life, rather than relying only on income or consumption.

MPI Indicators:
MPI is based on three dimensions with 12 indicators (India-specific):

1. Health (3): Nutrition, Child & Adolescent Mortality, Maternal Health
2. Education (2): Years of schooling, School attendance
3. Living Standards (7): Cooking fuel, sanitation, drinking water, electricity, housing, assets, bank account. A person is considered MPI poor if deprived in three or more indicators.

Formula: MPI = H × A (Headcount Ratio × Intensity of Poverty).

India’s Progress (2005-06 to 2019-21): India has shown significant reduction in MPI.

1. Headcount Ratio: Declined from 55.34% to 14.96%
2. intensity: Reduced from 54.96% to 44.39%
3. MPI Value: Fell from 0.304 to 0.066

Improvements were seen in bank accounts, electricity, sanitation, and nutrition, though cooking fuel, housing, and nutrition still need attention.

Question 5.
Write any four poverty alleviation measures in India.
Answer:
Poverty Alleviation Measures in India:
1) Employment Generation Schemes: Employment Generation Schemes are launched to create jobs and improve income levels for the poor through wage and self-employment. The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) provides 100 days (now 125 days) of guaranteed wage employment to rural households, helping reduce poverty.

2) Food Security Programmes: The Public Distribution System (PDS) supplies essential food items like rice, wheat, and sugar at subsidized prices to BPL (Below Poverty Line) and AAY (Antyodaya Anna Yojana) beneficiaries.

3) Health Schemes: The Ayushman Bharat – Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY) provides health insurance up to Rs. 5 lakh per family per year for hospitalization to poor families.

4) Free Education and Scholarships: The Right to Education Act, 2009 ensures free education for children (6-14 years), and Pradhan Mantri Uchchatar Shiksha Protsahan (PM-USP) provides financial assistance for higher education.

Question 6.
Summarize the inequality trends in India as analysed in the World Inequality Report 2024.
Answer:
The World Inequality Report 2024 highlights a sharp rise in income and wealth inequality in India, describing the present situation as the “Billionaire Raj” due to extreme concentration of wealth at the top.

1) Income Inequality: The top 1 % earns 22.6% of national income (2022-23) compared to 6.1% in 1982, while the bottom 50% earns only 15%. The top 10% share increased to nearly 60%, showing widening inequality.

2) Wealth Inequality: The top 1 % holds 39.5% of national wealth, and the top 0.001 % alone holds 16%, whereas the bottom 50% has only 6.5%, indicating severe disparity.

3) Surge in Billionaires: The number of billionaires increased from 70 (2014) to 271 (2024), with total wealth reaching $1 trillion.

4) Rising Gini Coefficient: Inequality has increased significantly, with income Gini rising from 0.47 (2000) to 0.61 (2022-23) and wealth Gini reaching 0.75, indicating high inequality.

Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by unemployment ? Explain the causes of unemployment in India.
Answer:
Unemployment is defined by the ILO (International Labour Organisation) as a situation where a person is not able to find work even though they are willing to work at the prevailing market wages. It is an important indicator of economic health.

Causes of Unemployment in India:
1) Jobless Growth: Economic growth has not been accompanied by sufficient job creation. For example, even when GDP grew at 6%, unemployment remained high at 11%, indicating growth without adequate employment opportunities.

2) Rapid Population Growth: The fast increase in population leads to a rapid rise in labour force, putting pressure on the job market as employment generation does not keep pace.

3) Seasonal Nature of Agriculture: A large section of the population depends on agriculture, where workers face unemployment during the off-season, leading to seasonal unemployment.

4) Adoption of Technology and Automation: Increased use of automation and capital-intensive techniques reduces the demand for human labour, causing job losses.

5) Education-Employability Mismatch: There is a gap between skills possessed by graduates and industry requirements, resulting in low employability (around 54.8%) and underemployment.

6) Skill-Job Mismatch: While demand exists for skilled workers, a large part of the labour force is unskilled or semi-skilled, especially’in the informal sector, leading to unemployment.

7) Economic Recession and Layoffs: Economic slowdowns force firms to reduce workforce, as seen during 2008-19 and 2020-23 (COVID-19 period), increasing unemployment.

8) Underperformance of the Service Sector: Some segments of the service sector underperform globally, leading to downsizing and fewer employment opportunities, especially in industries like IT.

9) Social Barriers and Discrimination: Certain groups and women face social discrimination and limited access to employment, restricting equal job opportunities.

Question 2.
Define poverty. What are the causes and alleviation measures of poverty?
Answer:
Poverty is defined as a condition where an individual or household is deprived of the basic needs of human life. It is a multi-dimensional condition caused by lack of adequate income to afford necessities such as food, clean water, clothing, shelter, education, and healthcare.

I) Causes of Poverty in India:

1. Historical Factors: Colonial rule destroyed traditional industries and drained resources, while the zamindari system and insecure tenancy exploited farmers, leading to agricultural stagnation.
2. Population Growth: Rapid population growth puts pressure on limited resources, causing shortages of food and services, and leading to urban crowding and slums.
3.  Unemployment: Lack of employment opportunities results in no income, directly increasing poverty levels.
4. Inequalities of Wealth and Income: Unequal distribution of income and wealth deprives a large section of people of basic necessities.
5. Subdivision of Landholdings: Continuous division of land into small and uneconomical plots reduces agricultural productivity and income.
6. Inflation and Rising Cost of Living: Increasing prices make even basic necessities unaffordable for the poor.

II) Poverty Alleviation Measures:

1. Employment Generation Schemes (MGNREGA, PMEGP, NRLM, DAY-NULM): These schemes provide wage and self-employment opportunities, with MGNREGA guaranteeing up to 125 days of employment.
2. Food Security Programmes (PDS): Essential food items are provided at subsidized prices to ensure food security.
3. Health Schemes (PM-JAY): Provides health insurance up to Rs. 5 lakh per family for low- income groups.
4. Free Education and Scholarships (RTE, PM-USP): Ensures free education (6-14 years) and financial support for higher education.
5. Nutrition and Welfare Initiatives (PM-POSHAN, Ujjwala Yojana, Swachh Bharat, PMJDY): Improve nutrition, sanitation, clean fuel access, and financial inclusion.
6. Housing Schemes (PMAY): Provide housing and shelter to poor households.

Question 3.
Explain the causes of wealth and income inequalities in India.
Answer:
Causes of Wealth and Income Inequalities in India:
Wealth and income inequalities in India are the result of historical, structural, economic, and technological factors that create unequal access to resources, opportunities, and income. These actors reinforce each other and lead to a widening gap between rich and poor.

1. Historical and Structural Factors: India’s colonial past led to the destruction of traditional industries and concentration of resources in a few hands. Along with this, the caste-based social structure restricted access to land, education, and jobs for certain groups. Although post-independence policies like land reforms reduced inequalities initially, their long-term impact has weakened, and disparities continue to persist.

2. Economic Liberalization (1991 Reforms): After economic reforms, India experienced rapid growth, but the benefits were unevenly distributed. Liberalization favored capital-intensive industries and skilled labour, allowing those with capital and higher skills to earn more. Wealthy individuals could invest and accumulate more wealth, while the poor did not benefit equally, leading to rising inequality.

3. Urban-Rural Divide: Economic development has been concentrated in urban areas, where industries, infrastructure, and services are better developed. Rural areas lag behind in income opportunities and productivity. Even within cities, inequality has increased, as high-income groups benefit more from growth compared to low-income workers.

4. Education and Skill Disparities: Unequal access to quality education has created a wide gap in skills. India’s education system has often prioritized higher education, leaving many without basic skills. As a result, skilled workers earn significantly higher wages, while unskilled workers remain in low-paying jobs, increasing income inequality.

5. Digital Divide: Unequal access to technology and internet further widens inequality. Limited digital access restricts opportunities in education, employment, and financial services. For instance, low internet access in schools and among rural populations, especially women, reduces their ability to compete in a modern economy.

6. Dominance of Informal Economy: A large share of India’s workforce is employed in the informal sector, where wages are low, job security is absent, and there are no social protections. This limits income growth for the majority, while a small section involved in formal and capital-intensive sectors earns much higher incomes, widening inequality

7. Inequalities in India are caused by deep-rooted structural issues and uneven economic development, and addressing them requires policies focused on inclusive growth, equal access to education and technology, and formal employment generation.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Disguised unemployment means:
1) Productivity of workers is low
2) Marginal Productivity of workers is zero
3) Unemployment caused by seasonal fluctuations
4) Workers are on the move from one job to the other
Answer:
2) Marginal Productivity of workers is zero

Question 2.
What is the reference period for Usual Status unemployment?
1) 365 days
2) 183 days
3) 90 days
4) 30 days
Answer:
1) 365 days

Question 3.
MPI poor refers to :
1) income poor
2) those deprived of more than 3 weighted indicators
3) deprival of non-food consumption necessities
4) deprival of health and education
Answer:
2) those deprived of more than 3 weighted indicators

Question 4.
As per the NITI Aayog, poverty rate for the year 2022-23 is :
1) 29.8 %
2) 11.8 %
3) 20.9 %
4) 33.8 %
Answer:
2) 11.8 %

Question 5.
Which of the following statements is correct in the Indian context?
1) Income inequality is more pronounced than wealth inequality
2) Wealth inequality is more pronounced than income inequality
3) Economic reforms reduced income equality but increased wealth inequality
4) Bottom 20% earn more than 50% of net personal income
Answer:
2) Wealth inequality is more pronounced than income inequality

Question 6.
Higher Gini index indicates:
1) more equality
2) more inequality
3) Perfect equality
4) Extreme poverty
Answer:
2) more inequality

Question 7.
Extreme poverty line defined by the World Bank:
1) Is globally comparable
2) Applies to lower middle-income group of countries only
3) Applies to upper middle income group of countries
4) Is country specific
Answer:
1) Is globally comparable

Question 8.
Mid-day meals is rebranded as
1) Ujjwala Yojana
2) PMAY
3) PM-POSHAN
4) PMJDY
Answer:
3) PM-POSHAN

Question 9.
Pradhan Mantri Uchchatar Shiksha Protsahan (PM-USP)
1) Is a merit-based scholarship scheme
2) Provides financial assistance to merit students from low-income families
3) Provides assistance to SC, ST, BC students of higher education based on merit
4) Provides financial assistance to low-income group students based on merit to pursue higher education
Answer:
4) Provides financial assistance to low-income group students based on merit to pursue higher education

Question 10.
PM-JAY Scheme provides:
1) free health care to all individuals aged above 70 years
2) subsidised health care to all senior citizens
3) insurance cover to all aged above 60 years
4) reimburses medical expenses of senior citizens for select diseases
Answer:
1) free health care to all individuals aged above 70 years

Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
Rangarajan Committee estimated ____________ poverty rate than the Tendulkar committee.
Answer:
higher /greater

Question 2.
The number of weighted indicators used in Living Standards dimension of MPI index are ____________.
Answer:
6

Question 3.
India is the ____________ most equal country as per the World Inequality Report.
Answer:
4th

Question 4.
____________ is the nodal agency for estimating poverty in India, on any.
Answer:
Niti Aayog

Question 5.
Under CWS, a person is considered employed if he worked for at least ____________ on any day in the reference week.
Answer:
one hour

One Word Answers

Question 1.
What is the status other than principal status in the context of unemployment during a reference period of 365 days.
Answer:
Subsidiary status

Question 2.
In what context do you mention the phrase surge in the billionaire count?
Answer:
Inequality

Question 3.
Which Committee was constituted to revise methodology to identify BPL households?
Answer:
Saxena Committee

Question 4.
Which State has the lowest head count ratio under MPI, 20237
Answer:
Goa

Question 5.
Number of days of work guaranteed under VB-GRAM G act?
Answer:
125 days

Regular practice with AP Inter 2nd Year Chemistry Study Material Chapter 10 Biomolecules Questions and Answers helps students stay prepared for examinations.

AP Inter 2nd Year Chemistry 10th Lesson Biomolecules Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which of the following does not come under biomolecules?
1) Cellulose
2) Lactose
3) Nylon
4) Lipid
Answer:
3) Nylon
Biomolecules are naturally occurring in living systems.
Nylon is a synthetic polymer, not biological.

Question 2.
The carbohydrate which does not undergo hydrolysis is
1) Sucrose
2) Starch
3) Ribose
4) Cellulose
Answer:
3) Ribose
Monosaccharides cannot be hydrolyzed further. Ribose is a monosaccharide

Question 3.
The number of asymmetric carbons present in the open chain structure of D-( + )-glucose is
1) 3
2) 4
3) 2
4) 5
Answer:
2) 4
Open-chain glucose has 4 chiral (asymmetric) carbons.All except C₁ and C₆.

Question 4.
Which of the following is not an example of a hormone?
1) Insulin
2) Estrogen
3) Pyridoxine
4) Androgen
Answer:
3) Pyridoxine
Hormones are chemical messengers (insulin, estrogen, androgen).
Pyridoxine is a vitamin (B₆), not a hormone.

Question 5.
α-D-( + )-Glucopyranose and β-D-( + )-Glucopyranose are
1) Anomers
2) Enantiomers
3) Epimers
4) All of these
Answer:
1) Anomers
α and β forms differ at anomeric carbon (C).So they are anomers.

Question 6.
Which of the following produces only glucose units on complete hydrolysis?
1) Lactose
2) Maltose
3) Raffinose
4) Sucrose
Answer:
2) Maltose
Maltose = glucose + glucose. On hydrolysis → only glucose units

Question 7.
Which reagent does not react with -CHO group of glucose?
1) NH₂OH
2) NaHSO₃
3) Br₁ in water
4) HCN
Answer:
2) NaHSO₃
Glucose has -CHO group → reacts with most reagents.
NaHSO₃ does NOT react with glucose (due to cyclic form dominance).

Question 8.
Which compound inverts its optical rotation on hydrolysis?
1) Glucose
2) Sucrose
3) Maltose
4) Fructose
Answer:
2) Sucrose
Inversion of rotation occurs when hydrolysis changes optical rotation.
Sucrose → glucose + fructose → inversion.
Dextrorotatory sucrose gives a mixture of dextro glucose laevo fructose in which proportion of laevo is more.

Question 9.
Which of the following amino acid is optically inactive?
1) Alanine
2) Lysine
3) Glycine
4) Valine
Answer:
3) Glycine
Optical inactivity occurs when no chiral center. Glycine has no chiral carbon.

Question 10.
Which polysaccharide contains β – D – glucose as its building unit?
1) Lactose
2) Arabinose
3) Cellulose
4) Starch
Answer:
3) Cellulose
Cellulose is polymer of β-D-glucose. Starch is α-D-glucose.

Question 11.
Which amino acid is basic in nature?
1) Glutamic acid
2) Lysine
3) Tyrosine
4) Leucine
Answer:
2) Lysine
Basic amino acids have extra -NH₂, groups. Lysine is strongly basic.

Question 12.
Albumin is an example of
1) Fibrous Protein
2) Carbohydrate
3) Globular Protein
4) Lipid
Answer:
3) Globular Protein
Albumin is soluble protein → globular type. Globular protein

Question 13.
Enzymes in the living systems
1) Provide immunity
2) Provide energy
3) Transport oxygen
4) Catalyze biological reactions
Answer:
4) Catalyze biological reactions
Enzymes are biological catalysts. They speed up biochemical reactions.

Question 14.
Which vitamin deficiency causes convulsions?
1) Vitamin C
2) Vitamin D
3) Vitamin E
4) Vitamin B₆
Answer:
4) Vitamin B₆
Vitamin B₆ deficiency affects nervous system → convulsions.

Question 15.
Which nitrogen base is not the part of RNA?
1) Uracil
2) Cytosine
3) Thymine
4) Guanine
Answer:
3) Thymine
RNA contains U, C, A, G Thymine is present only in DNA [A, G, C, T]

II. Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
In sucrose molecule, glucose and fructose are connected between _______ atoms respectively.
Answer:
C₁ and C₂

Question 2.
Curdling of milk is an example of _______.
Answer:
Denaturation of proteins.

Question 3.
Complementary base for the adenine present in DNA is ________.
Answer:
Thymine.

Question 4.
Rickets disease is caused by the deficiency of vitamin ________.
Answer:
Vitamin D.

Question 5.
Hormones are molecules that act as _______.
Answer:
Intercellular messengers.

III. One Word Answer Questions

Question 1.
Which linkage connects two monosaccharide units?
Answer:
Glycosidic linkage connects two monosaccharide units

Question 2.
Which non-essential amino acid is optically inactive?
Answer:
Glycine is optically inactive non-essential amino acid.

Question 3.
What type of bonding helps in stabilizing the α-helix structure of proteins?
Answer:
Hydrogen bonding helps in stabilizing the α-helix structure of proteins.

Question 4.
Name the disease that occurs due to deficiency of ascorbic acid.
Answer:
Scurvy (bleeding gums) occurs due to deficiency of ascorbic acid.

Question 5.
Increased level of which hormone causes hyperthyroidism?
Answer:
Increased level of Thyroxine causes hyperthyroidism.

IV. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Name the different types of carbohydrates on the basis of their hydrolysis. Give one example for each.
Answer:
Classification of Carbohydrates (Saccharides) on the basis of their hydrolysis:
a) Monosaccharides: These are the simple carbohydrates that cannot be broken further into smaller units on hydrolysis
Ex: Glucose and fructose.

b) Disaccharides: These carbohydrates give 2 units of monosaccharides on hydrolysis.
Ex: Sucrose, lactose

c) Oligosaccharides: These carbohydrates give 2-10 units of monosaccharides on hydrolysis.
Ex: Raffinose(which gives glucose, fructose and galactose on hydrolysis)

d) Polysaccha rides: These carbohydrates give large number of monosaccharides on hydrolysis.
Ex: Starch, cellulose etc.,

Question 2.
Why are sugars classified as reducing and non-reducing sugars?
Answer:
Sugars are classified as reducing and non-reducing sugars to test whether the sugar has a free aldehyde or ketone group that can act as a reducing agent.
Reducing sugars reduce Fehling’s solution or Tollen’s reagent.
They contain free aldehyde or Ketonic group. Ex: Glucose & Maltose
Non-reducing sugars do not reduce Fehling’s solution or Tollen’s reagent.
They do not have free aldehyde or ketonic group. Ex: Sucrose & Cellulose

Question 3.
What are anomers?
Answer: Anomers are those isomers which differ in orientation of -OH at C-1 (first carbon)
Ex: α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose

Question 4.
What is Zwitter ion? Give an example.
Answer:
Zwitter ion is a molecule or ion containing separate positively and negatively charged groups, yet it is electrically neutral overall.
Ex: In amino acid, the -NH₂ (amino) group is basic and -COOH group is acidic. In aqueous solution, the carboxylic group loses a proton and amino group accepts the proton giving rise to a dipolar zwitter ion.

Question 5.
Write the names of three types of RNA.
Answer:
Three types of RNA:
a) m-RNA (messenger RNA)
b) r-RNA (ribosomal RNA )
c) t-RNA (transfer RNA)

Question 6.
Name the vitamin responsible for the coagulation of blood.
Answer:
Vitamin K is responsible for the coagulation of blood.

Question 7.
What is glycogen? How is it different from starch?
Answer:

• Glycogen is a polysaccharide which is stored in animal body (liver, muscles, brain).
• Starch is a polysaccharide which is stored in plants.
• Glycogen is more highly branched than Starch (amylopectin).

Question 8.
What are essential and non-essential amino acids? Give one example for each.
Answer:
Essential Amino acids: These are the amino acids which cannot be synthesised in the body and must be taken in diet.
Ex: Valine, leucine, phenylalanine .

Non-essential amino acids: These are the amino acids which can be synthesised in the body
Ex: Glycine alanine, glutamic acid.

Question 9.
Differentiate between globular and fibrous proteins.
Answer:

Question 10.
What is the difference between a nucleoside and a nucleotide?
Answer:
These two are fundamental building blocks of nucleic acids DNA/ RNA

V. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Write a short note on the structure of glucose.
Answer:
Structure & Properties of of glucose :
a) Acylation of glucose with acetic anhydride gives glucose penta acetate.
Hence glucose molecule has 5 -‘OH’ groups.

b) Glucose reacts with hydroxylamine and one molecule of HCN to give monoxime and cyanohydrin respectively. Hence glucose has H one carbonyl group.

c) Glucose reduces Tollen’s reagent to metallic silver and Fehling’s solution to reddish brown Cu₂O.
Thus, glucose molecule is oxidised to gluconic acid. Hence glucose molecule contains an aldehydic (-CHO) group.

d) Strong oxidising agents like Cone. HN03, oxidise glucose to gluconic acid and finally to saccharic acid. Hence glucose molecule has a primary alcohol group (-CH2OH).

e) Glucose on prolonged heating with HI gives n-hexane.
Hence glucose has a six carbon chain with linear structure.

f) D- glucose when treated with excess of phenyl hydrazine, glucosazone is formed.
Based on the above observations, two open chain structures are proposed for glucose.
But glucose does not react with SchifTs reagent and sodium bisulphite.
Penta acetate of glucose does not react with hydroxylamine. Thus glucose shows muta rotation.
These properties suggest that glucose has a cyclic structure.

Question 2.
Explain the classification of proteins as primary, secondary, tertiary and quarternary proteins with respect to their structure.
Answer:
Structures of Proteins:
i) Primary structure of protein: The sequence in which various amino acids are arranged in a protein is called its primary structure. Any change in the sequence of amino acids creates different protein.

ii) Secondary structure of protein: it refers to shape in which a long polypeptide chain exists. A protein may assume α-helix structure of β-pleated structure. The a-helix structure results due to regular coiling of polypeptide chain.
Ex: Keratin in hair, nails, wood and myosin in nucleus

In β-pleated sheet structure, all peptide chairts are stretched to nearly maximum extension They are arranged side by side and held together by intramolecular hydrogen bonding.
Ex: Silk has β-pleated structure.

iii) Tertiary structure of proteins The tertiary structure of proteins represent overall folding of the polypeptide chain i.e., further folding of the secondary structure.

It gives rise to two major molecular shapes (i) Fibrous and (ii) Globular.

The main forces which stabilise 2° and 3° of proteins are hydrogen bonds, disulphide linkage. Van der waals forces and electrostatic force of attraction.

iv) Quaternary structure: Some of the proteins are composed of two or more polypeptide chains known as subunits. The spatial arrangement of these subunits with respect to each other is known as quaternary structure.

Question 3.
Explain the denaturation of proteins.
Answer:
Denatu ration: When a protein in its native form, is subjected to physical change such as change in temperature, or chemical change like change in pH, the hydrogen bonds are disturbed.

The protein globules unfold, helix get uncoiled and protein loses its biological activity.

This is called denaturation of proteins. Secondary and tertiary structures are destroyed but the primary structure remains as such.Ex: Curdling of milk, Coagulation of egg by boiling etc.,

Question 4.
What are enzymes?Give examples.
Answer:
Enzymes are biological catalysts. Each biological system requires a different enzyme. Enzymes are specific and efficient in their action. They are required in only small quantity and work at optimum temperature (310K) and pH (7.4) under one atmospheric pressure. Chemically, they are globular proteins. However some enzymes are also associated with some non-protein components called the co-factors for their activity.
Ex: Invertase, zymase, Diastase, Maltase, Urease, Pepsin

Question 5.
Write notes on vitamins.
Answer:
Vitamins are essential organic compounds required in small quantities for the normal growth and metabolic functioning of the body. Since most of the vitamins cannot be synthesized by the body, they must be obtained through diet or supplements.
Vitamins are designated by A, B, C, D, E, K. Vitamin B is sub divided into B₁, B₂, B₆, B₁₂
Vitamins are classified into two groups depending on their solubility in water or fat.

1. Fat soluble vitamins: Vitamins which are soluble in fat and oils but insoluble in water belong to this group. Such vitamins are A,D,E ,K. They are stored in liver and adipose tissues.
2. Water soluble vitamins: B group vitamins and vitamin C are soluble in water. Water soluble vitamins must be supplied regularly in diet because they are readily excreted in urine and cannot be stored (except vitamin B₁₂) in our body.

Vitamin – Sources – Deficiency diseases

Question 6.
What are hormones? Give one example for each.

1. steroid hormones
2. Polypeptide hormones and
3. amino acid derivatives.

Answer:
Hormones : Hormones are biomolecules that act as intercellular messengers.
They transfer biological information from one group of cells to distant tissues (or) organs.
These are produced by endocrine glands in the body and are poured directly in the blood stream which transports them to the site of action.
They are basically two types (i) Animal hormones (ii) Plant hormones

1. Steroid hormones are lipid-soluble hormones derived from cholesterol.
   Ex: Testosterone (male sex hormone), Estrogen (female sex hormones)
2. Polypeptide hormones are made up of chains of amino acids (peptides/proteins).
   Ex: Insulin (regulates blood glucose), endorphins.
3. Amino acid derivatives are derived from tyrosine or tryptophan.
   Ex: Epinephrine and norepinephrine.

Question 7.
Give the dietary sources of the following vitamins and name the diseases caused by their deficiency (a) A (b) D (c) E and (d) K
Answer:

Question 8.
Write the importance of carbohydrates.
Answer:
Carbohydrates are essential biomolecules needed for the life of both plants and animals. Honey is an instant source of energy. Carbohydrates are used as storage molecules as starch in plants and glycogen in animals. Cell wall of bacteria and plants is madeup of cellulose. Wood and cotton fibre contain cellulose. D-ribose and 2-deoxy-D-ribose are present in nucleic acids. “Streptomycin” is a carbohydrate antibiotic. Other antibiotics of this family are kenamycins, neomycins and gentamycins. Antigenic carbohydrates are synthesised to fight against cancer.

Question 9.
Write about polysaccharides with starch and cellulose as examples.
Answer:
Polysaccharides: These carbohydrates give large number of monosaccharides on hydrolysis. They are joined together by glycosidic linkages. They are the most common carbohydrates in nature. They mainly act as the food storage or structural materials.
Ex: Starch, cellulose .

i) Starch: Starch is the main storage polysaccharide of plants. It is the most important dietary source for human beings. High content of starch is found in cereals, roots, tubers and some vegetables. It is a polymer of a-D-glucose and it consists of Amylose and Amylopectin.

Amylose is water soluble component which constitutes about 15-20% of starch. Chemically amylose is a long unbranched chain with 200-1000 a-D-(+)-glucose units held by C-1 to C-4 glycosidic linkage.

Amylopectin is insoluble in water and constitutes about 80-85% of starch. It is a branched chain polymer of α-D-glucose units in which chain is formed by C1-C4 glycosidic linkage whereas branching occurs by C1-C6 glycosidic linkage.

ii) Cellulose: Cellulose occurs exclusively in plants and it is the most abundant organic substance in plant kingdom. It is a predominant constituent of cell wall of plant cells. Cellulose is a straight chain polysaccharide composed only of P-D-glucose units which are joined by glycosidic linkage between C-1 of one glucose unit and C-4 of the next glucose unit.

Question 10.
Write short notes on Sucrose.
Answer:

1. Sucrose is a naturally occuring disaccharide sugar (C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁) composed of glucose and fructose. It is commonly known as table sugar or cane sugar.
2. It is white, odorless, crystalline solid
3. It is found in sweet fruits, but commercially extracted from sugarcane.
4. It is used as sweetener, perservatives (Jams & Jellyes), baking
5. Sucrose is a non reducing sugar because the reducing groups of glucose and fructose are involved in glycosidic bond formation.
6. Sucrose is dextrorotatory but after hydrolysis it is leavorotatory because
   the laevorotation of fructose (-92.4°) is more than dextrorotation of glucose (+52.5°).
7. Hydrolysis of sucrose brings about a change in specific rotation, from dextro (+) to laevo(-) hence it is known as invert sugar.
8. Sucrose on hydrolysis gives equimolar mixture of D-(+)-glucose and D-(-) fructose.
   

VI. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the classification of carbohydrates with examples.
Answer:
Classification of Carbohydrates
I) Classification based on number of units of Saccharides:
a) Monosaccharides: These are the simple carbohydrates that cannot be broken further into smaller units on hydrolysis Ex; Glucose and fructose.

b) Disaccharides: These carbohydrates give 2 units of monosaccharides on hydrolysis.
Ex; Sucrose, lactose

c) Oligosaccharides: These carbohydrates give 2-10 units of monosaccharides on hydrolysis.
Ex; Raffinose(which gives glucose, fructose and galactose on hydrolysis)

d) Polysaccharides; These carbohydrates give large number of monosaccharides on hydrolysis.
Ex: Starch, cellulose

Different types of Monosaccharides:

II) Classification based on functional group: If a carbohydrate contains an aldehyde group, it is known as aldose and if it contains a Keto group, it is known as a ketose.

Question 2.
Write notes on (a) enzymes and (b) vitamins
Answer:
(a) Enzymes: Enzymes are biological catalysts. Each biological system requires a different enzyme. Enzymes are specific and efficient in their action. They are required in only small quantity and work at optimum temperature (310K) and pH (7.4) under one atmospheric pressure. Chemically, they are globular proteins. However some enzymes are also associated with some non-protein components called the co-factors for their activity.
Ex: Invertase, zymase, Diastase, Maltase, Urease, Pepsin .
Invertase converts Sucrose into Glucose and Fructose

(b) Vitamins are essential organic compounds required in small quantities for the normal growth and metabolic functioning of the body. Since most of the vitamins cannot be synthesized by the body, they must be obtained through diet or supplements.
Vitamins are designated by A,B,C,D,E,K. Vitamin B is sub divided into B₁, B₂, B₆, B₁₂. Vitamins are classified into two groups depending on their solubility in water or fat.

1. Fat soluble vitamins: Vitamins which are soluble in fat and oils but insoluble in water belong
   to this group. Such vitamins are A,D,E ,K. They are stored in liver and adipose tissues.
2. Water soluble vitamins: B group vitamins and vitamin C are soluble in water. Water soluble vitamins must be supplied regularly in diet because they are readily excreted in urine and cannot be stored (except vitamin B₁₂) in our body.

Question 3.
Explain the structure and functions of DNA and RNA.
Answer:
NUCLEIC ACIDS (DNA & RNA): Nucleic acids are long chain biopolymers of nucleotides
with a polyphosphate ester chain. They consists of a base (a pentose sugar) and phosphate group DNA and RNA – Structure and Functions 1. 1. DNA (Deoxyribonucleic Acid):

• Structure of DNA: It is made up of repeating units called nucleotides.
• Each nucleotide contains: Deoxyribose sugar,Phosphate group, Nitrogen base
• Nitrogen bases in DNA: Adenine (A),Thymine (T),Guanine (G),Cytosine (C)
• DNA has a double helical structure with two antiparallel strands.
• Base pairing: A pairs with T, G pairs with C

Functions of DNA:

1. Stores hereditary/genetic information.
2. Controls cell activities through protein synthesis.
3. Transfers genetic traits from parents to offspring.
4. Undergoes replication before cell division.

2. RNA(RibonucIeic Acid)
Structure of RNA: It is usually single stranded.
Each nucleotide contains: Ribose sugar,Phosphate group,Nitrogen base Nitrogen bases in RNA:Adenine (A),Uracil (U),Guanine (G),Cytosine (C) In RNA, Uracil replaces Thymine.
Functions of RNA:

1. Helps in protein synthesis.
2. Carries genetic message from DNA to ribosomes.
3. Forms ribosomes and helps amino acid transport.

Structural differences between RNA and DNA

Question 4.
Write notes on the functions of major hormones in the human body.
Answer:
Hormones help to maintain the balance of biological activities in the body.

1. Insulin keeps the blood glucose level with in the limit.
2. Growth hormones and sex hormones play role in growth and development.
3. Hormones released by gonads are responsible for development of secondary sexual characters.
4. Adrenal cortex release glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids.
5. The glucocorticoids modulate inflammatory reactions and are involved in reaction to stress.
6. The mineralocorticoids control the level of excretion of water and salt by the kidney.

Objective Questions

Question 1.
Which of the following reactions of glucose can be explained only by its cyclic structure?
1) Glucose forms pentaacetate
2) Glucose reacts with hydroxylamine to form an oxime
3) Pentaacetate of glucose does not react with hydroxylamine
4) Glucose is oxidised by nitric acid to gluconic acid
Answer:
3) Pentaacetate of glucose does not react with hydroxylamine

Question 2.
Which of the following statement is not true about glucose?
1) It is an aldohexose
2) On heating with HI it forms n-hexane
3) It is present in furanose form
4) It does not give 2,4-DNP test
Answer:
3) It is present in furanose form

Question 3.
Sucrose (cane sugar) is a disaccharide. One molecule of sucrose on hydrolysis gives ______
1) 2 molecules of glucose
2) 2 molecules of glucose +1 molecule of fructose
3) 1 molecule of glucose + 1 molecule of fructose
4) 2 molecules of fructose
Answer:
3) 1 molecule of glucose + 1 molecule of fructose

Question 4.
Sucrose on hydrolysis gives
1) β-D-glucose + α-D-fructose
2) α-D-glucose + β-D-glucose
3) α-D-glucose + β-D-fructose
4) α-D-fructose + β-D-fructose
Answer:
3) α-D-glucose + β-D-fructose

Question 5.
Which one of the following sets of monosaccharides forms sucrose?
1) α-D-galactopyranose and α-D-glucopyranose
2) α-D-glucopyranose and β-D-fructofuranose
3) β-D-glucopyrauose and α-D-fructofuranose
4) α-D-glucopyranose and β-D-fructopyranose
Answer:
2) α-D-glucopyranose and β-D-fructofuranose

Question 6.
Which of the following does not exhibit the phenomea of mutarotation?
1) (+) Sucrose
2) (+) Lactose
3) (+) Maltose
4) (-) Fructose
Answer:
1) (+) Sucrose

Question 7.
Which one of the following statements is not true regarding (+) lactose?
1) (+) lactose is a β-glycoside formed by the union of a molecule of D-(+)- glucose and a molecule of D-(+)-galactose
2) (+) lactose is a reducing sugar and does not exhibit mutarotation
3) (+) lactose, C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁, contains 80-H groups
4) On hydrolysis (+) lactose gives equal amount of D-(+)- glucose and D-(+)- galactose
Answer:
2) (+) lactose is a reducing sugar and does not exhibit mutarotation

Question 8.
The hormone that helps in the conversion of glucose to glycogen is
1) cortisone
2) bile acids
3) adrenaline
4) insulin
Answer:
4) insulin

Question 9.
Glycogen is a branched chain polymer of a-D-glucose units in which chain is formed by C1 – C4 glycosidic linkage whereas branching occurs by the formation of C1- C6 glycosidic linkage. Structure of glycogen is similar to
1) Amy lose
2) Amylopectin
3) Cellulose
4) Glucose
Answer:
2) Amylopectin

Question 10.
Which of the following polymer is stored in the liver of animals?
1)Amylose
2) Cellulose
3) Amylopectin
4) Glycogen
Answer:
4) Glycogen

Question 11.
Dinucleotide is obtained by joining two nucleotides together by phosphodiester linkage. Between which carbon atoms of pentose sugars of nucleotides are these linkage present?
1) 5′ and 3′
2) 1′ and 5′
3) 5′ and 5′
4) 3′ and 3′
Answer:
1) 5′ and 3′

Question 12.
Each polypeptide in a protein has aminoacids linked with each other in a specific sequence. This sequence of amino acids is said to be
1) primary structure of proteins.
2) secondary structure of proteins.
3) tertiary structure of proteins.
4) quaternary structure of proteins.
Answer:
1) primary structure of proteins.

Question 13.
Proteins are found to have two different types of secondary structures viz. a-helix and P-pleated sheet structure, a-helix structure of protein is stabilised by :
1) Peptide bonds
2) van der Waals forces
3) Hydrogen bonds
4) Dipole-dipole interactions
Answer:
4) Dipole-dipole interactions

Question 14.
Nucleic acids are the polymers of _______
1) Nucleosides
2) Nucleotides
3) Bases
4) Sugars
Answer:
2) Nucleotides

Question 15.
DNA and RNA contain four bases each. Which of the following bases is not present in RNA?
1) Adenine
2) Uracil
3) Thymine
4) Cytosine
Answer:
3) Thymine

Question 16.
Which of the following is a basic amino acid?
1) Serine
2) Alanine
3) Tyrosine
4) Lysine
Answer:
4) Lysine

Question 17.
The nonessential amino acid among the following is
1) lysine
2) valine
3) leucine
4) alanine
Answer:
4) alanine

Question 18.
Which of the following compounds can form a zwitter ion?
1) Aniline
2) Acetanilide
3) Benzoic acid
4) Glycine
Answer:
4) Glycine

Question 19.
Which of the following B group vitamins can be stored in our body?
1) Vitamin B₁
2) Vitamin B₂
3) Vitamin B₆
4) Vitamin B₁₂
Answer:
4) Vitamin B₁₂

Question 20.
Which one of the following vitamins is water-soluble?
1) Vitamin-B
2) Vitamin-E
3) Vitamin-K
4) Vitamin-A
Answer:
1) Vitamin-B

Question 21.
The RBC deficiency is deficiency disease of
1) Vitamin B₂
2) Vitamin B₁₂
3) Vitamin B₆
4) Vitamin B₁
Answer:
2) Vitamin B₁₂

Question 22.
Vitamin-B₁₂ contains
1) Zn(II)
2) Ca(Il)
3) Fe(II)
4) Co(II)
Answer:
4) Co(II)

Question 23.
Which of the following acids is a vitamin?
1) Aspartic acid
2) Ascorbic acid
3) Adipic acid
4) Saccharic acid
Answer:
2) Ascorbic acid

Question 24.
Which of the following bases is not present in DNA?
1) Adenine
2) Thymine
3) Cytosine
4) Uracil
Answer:
4) Uracil

Question 25.
RNA and DNA are chiral molecules, their chirality is due to
1) L-sugar component
2) Chiral bases
3) Chiral phosphate ester units
4) D-sugar component
Answer:
4) D-sugar component

Question 26.
The segment of DNA which acts as the instrumental manual for the synthesis of the protein is
1) nucleotide
2) ribose
3) gene
4) nucleoside
Answer:
3) gene

Question 27.
Which of the following hormones contains iodine?
1) Insulin
2) Testosterone
3) Adrenaline
4) Thyroxine
Answer:
4) Thyroxine

Reviewing AP Inter 2nd Year Economics Study Material Chapter 5 Population and Human Resources Development Questions and Answers can help students prepare confidently for exams.

AP Inter 2nd Year Economics 5th Lesson Population and Human Resources Development Questions and Answers

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Ayushman Bharat
Answer:
Ayushman Bharat (2018) is a flagship health programme to achieve Universal Health Coverage.
It has two components

1. Health and Wellness Centres (HWCs)
2. PM-JAY (Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana):
   All senior citizens aged 70 & above will receive health insurance regardless of their Income.

Question 2.
Distinguish between human resources and human capital.
Answer:

1. Human Resources: It refers to the total population of a country, including all individuals who can potentially contribute to economic and social activities.
2. Human Capital: It refers to the quality of people in terms of education, skills, training, and health, which increases their productivity and economic value.

Question 3.
Define sex ratio.
Answer:

• Sex ratio is the number of females per 1,000 males in a population.
• It is an important demographic indicator that reflects the gender balance and social attitudes of a society.

Question 4.
What is infant mortality rate?
Answer:
IMR (Infant Mortality Rate) is defined as the number of deaths of infants under one year of age per 1,000 live births.

Question 5.
Write any four schemes relating to India’s education sector.
Answer:
Four schemes relating to India’s education sector:

1. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA)
2. Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA)
3. Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan
4. PM SHRI Schools

Question 6.
What is GDI?
Answer:
GDI (Gender Development Index) measures gender inequalities in human development by comparing the achievements of men and women in areas like health, education, and income.

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain Stage 2 of the demographic transition.
Answer:
Stage 2 of Demographic Transition:

1. Stage 2 of the demographic transition is known as the “Early Expanding Stage.”
2. In stage 2, there is an appreciable decline in death rates due to economic development, which leads to better nutrition, clean water, sanitation, and improved healthcare.
3. The birth rate remains high and death rate fall shortly resulting in a widening gap between birth and death rates.
4. This stage is also called as Population Explosion as there is a rapid increase in population. This rapid growth can nullify the benefits of economic development, preventing significant improvement in the standard of living.

Question 2.
What are the trends in India’s population density?
Answer:
Trends in India’s Population Density:

1. Population density is defined as the number of people per square kilometre of land area. It has shown a consistent and significant upward trend since independence, indicating increasing pressure on land, water, and urban infrastructure.
2. There has been a steady increase, from 117 persons/sq. km in 1951 to 382 in 2011, rising further to 445 in 2021 and estimated 464 persons/sq. km by 2025.
3. India’s population density is much higher than the global average of 62 persons per sq. km, showing a high level of population concentration.
4. There are regional variations, with Bihar (1,300) and West Bengal (1,100) having high density, Arunachal Pradesh (17) having very low density, and urban areas like Delhi exceeding 12,000 persons/sq. km due to urbanization.

Question 3.
Explain the role of education in human resource development.
Answer:
Role of Education in Human Resource Development:

1. Education acts as a primary driver of human resource development, transforming the population into a productive asset and human capital, thereby promoting economic growth.
2. It equips individuals with knowledge, skills, and critical thinking, which enhances productivity, innovation, and adaptability to new technologies.
3. Education leads to economic advancement by increasing earning capacity, providing better employment opportunities, and improving overall economic productivity.
4. It promotes social mobility and empowerment, creates a virtuous cycle of development, and helps in maximizing the demographic dividend, avoiding a demographic disaster.

Question 4.
Describe key health indicators in India.
Answer:
Key Health Indicators in India:

1. Life Expectancy: It indicates the average number of years a person is expected to live; it has increased over time due to improvements in healthcare and living conditions.

2. Infant Mortality Rate (IMR): It refers to the number of infants dying before one year of age per 1,000 live births, and it has been declining, showing better health services.

3. Birth Rate and Death Rate: These indicators show trends in population growth; birth rates are relatively high while death rates have declined, reflecting improved medical facilities.

4. Healthcare Access: Expansion of healthcare programmes and facilities has improved access to medical services, contributing to better overall health conditions.

Question 5.
Explain any four environmental impacts of growing population?
Answer:
Environmental Impacts of Growing Population:

1. Deforestation: The growing population increases demand for land for housing and infrastructure, leading to clearing of forests for timber, fuel, and space, causing loss of dense forest cover and very low per capita forest area.

2. Water Scarcity: Population growth results in over-extraction of groundwater to meet rising needs, making India a water-stressed nation with limited per capita water availability.

3. Pollution: A larger population leads to increased water pollution (industrial and domestic waste in rivers), air pollution (vehicles and industries), and solid waste generation, severely affecting environmental quality.

4. Biodiversity Loss: Expansion of human activities causes habitat destruction, threatening wildlife and increasing human-wildlife conflicts due to shrinking natural habitats.

Question 6.
What are the major schemes launched in India’s education sector?
Answer:
Major Schemes in India’s Education Sector:

1. Operation Blackboard (1987) and District Primary Education Programme (DPEP) (1994) were launched in 1980s to improve basic school infrastructure and achieve universal primary education.
2. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) (2001) and Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA) focused on universal elementary education and expansion of secondary education.
3. Rashtriya Ucchar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA) (2013), National Digital Literacy Mission (NDLM) (2014), and SWAYAM (2017) aimed at improving higher education quality and promoting digital learning.
4. Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan (2018), PM eVidya (2020), NIPUN Bharat (2021), and PM SHRI Schools (2022) provide holistic, digital, and skill-based education aligned with NEP 2020, along with support from programmes like RTE Act, Mid-Day Meal Scheme, and Skill India.

Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the demographic trends in India.
Answer:
Demographic Trends in India:
1) Size of the Population: India is currently the most populous country in the world, with its population increasing fourfold since 1951. The year 1921 is known as the “Year of Great Divide” because it was the last year when population declined; after that, it has grown continuously. The population rose from 0.36 billion (1951) to 1.21 billion (2011) and is estimated to reach 1.46 billion by 2025, showing a massive expansion in absolute numbers.

2) Growth Rate: Even though the total population is still rising, the rate of growth has slowed down significantly. It declined from a peak of 2.16% during 1981-91 to about 0.9% in 2021-2025. This indicates that India is gradually moving toward population stabilization, mainly due to increased awareness, education, and family planning.

3) Birth and Death Rates: Both birth and death rates have declined sharply since 1951, marking a key demographic change. The birth rate fell from 39.9 to 16.5 per 1,000, while the death rate declined from 27.4 to 6.5. This reduction is due to improvements in healthcare services, sanitation, nutrition, and medical facilities, along with effective family planning programmes.

4) Population Density: The number of people living per square kilometre has increased rapidly, from 117 (1951) to 382 (2011) and is expected to reach 464 by 2025. This density is much higher than the global average, which indicates heavy pressure on land, housing, water resources, and infrastructure, especially in urban areas.

5) Sex Ratio: India’s sex ratio declined after 1951 due to gender discrimination and social biases, reaching a low of 933 females per 1,000 males in 2001. However, it has improved to 943 in 2011 and is estimated at 1,020 in 2024, reflecting better awareness, government initiatives, and changing social attitudes toward females.

6) Life Expectancy and Literacy: Life expectancy has more than doubled, from 32.1 years in 1951 to about 70.1 years in 2024, indicating improved living conditions and healthcare. Similarly, literacy has increased from 18.33% to 80.9%, showing progress in education. However, a gender gap still exists, with male literacy higher than female literacy.

7) Demographic Dividend: India is currently in the third stage of demographic transition, characterized by a large youth population. About 65% of the population is below 35 years, providing a “window of opportunity” for economic growth. If properly educated and skilled, this workforce can boost productivity; otherwise, it may lead to unemployment issues.

8) Overall Trend: India has transitioned from a stage of high birth and death rates to rapid population growth, and is now gradually moving toward stabilization. This reflects a significant structural transformation in its demographic pattern.

Question 2.
Discuss the achievements of India’s health sector and its current challenges.
Answer:
I) Achievements of India’s health sector:

1. Eradication and Control of Diseases: India has successfully eradicated Smallpox (1977), Polio (2014), and Guinea Worm Disease (2000). Diseases like Leprosy, Malaria, Tuberculosis (TB), and HIV have also been significantly controlled through public health programmes.
2. Increased Life Expectancy: Due to improvements in healthcare facilities and food security, life expectancy has increased to about 70.6 years (2024) from 66 years (2000), reflecting better overall health conditions.
3. Expansion of Healthcare Access: The Ayushman Bharat scheme (2018) provides free hospital care to about 500 million people, with over 30 crore health cards issued, improving access to medical services.
4. Improved Child Health and Nutrition: Immunization coverage (76.1 %) has helped reduce infant mortality rate to 35 per 1,000 live births. Programmes like Poshan Abhiyaan have reduced stunting among children, improving child health outcomes.

II) Challenges of India’s health sector:

1. Persistent Malnutrition: Despite improvements, 36% of children are stunted, and 19% are wasted, which negatively affects their physical and cognitive development.
2. Low Healthcare Spending: Public health expenditure is only about 1.6% of GDP, which is lower than the 2.5% target, limiting healthcare expansion and quality.
3. Significant Access Gaps: There is a large disparity between rural and urban areas, with fewer doctors and facilities in rural regions, leading to unequal healthcare access.
4. Rise of Non-Communicable Diseases (NCDs) and Infrastructure Issues: Increasing cases of diabetes and hypertension (about 25% adults), along with poor infrastructure and quality of services, create major challenges for the health sector.

Question 3.
Explain the India’s education sector with a special reference to the NEP, 2020.
Answer:
The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 was introduced to address these gaps through structural reforms and ambitious targets.
I) The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 – Key Features:

1. New Curricular Structure: It replaces the traditional 10+2+3 pattern with a 5 +3+3+4 pattern.
2. Universal Schooling: The policy sets a target to achieve universal schooling by 2030.
3. Increased Funding: It recommends increasing government expenditure on education to 6% of the nation’s GDP to support infrastructure and teacher training.
4. Vocational and Skill Focus: The policy emphasizes vocational training and education quality to improve employability.

II) Major Educational Schemes: To realize the goals of the NEP and improve the overall sector, the government has launched several initiatives:

1. PM SHRI Schools (2022): A project to develop 14,500 model schools that are specifically aligned with NEP goals.
2. NIPUN Bharat (2021): Aimed at ensuring every child achieves foundational literacy and numeracy by Class 3.
3. PM eVidya (2020): A digital learning initiative utilizing TV, radio, and online platforms to provide multi-mode access to education.
4. Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan (2018): Provides holistic education from the pre-primary level up to Class 12 and has significantly improved school infrastructure, such as functional toilets.

III) Achievements:

1. Literacy Rate: The overall literacy rate increased to 79.7% in 2023-24, with urban areas at 87.6% and rural areas at 76.4%.
2. Higher Education Enrolment: The Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in higher education reached 27.3% in 2020-21.
3. Skill Development: Initiatives like the Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) have trained over 14.8 million youth as of June 2024.

IV) Challenges:

1. Funding Shortfall: Public expenditure on education is currently 4.6% of GDP, which is below the 6% target recommended by the NEP 2020.
2. Quality Gaps: There is a significant gap between expected years of schooling (11.7) and learning-adjusted years of schooling (6.9) due to poor teaching quality.
3. Gender and Regional Disparities: A literacy gap persists between males (85.6%) and females (73.7%), as well as between urban and rural populations.
4. Commercialisation: The rising cost of education in private institutions has made quality schooling more expensive for many.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which stage has high birth and death rates?
1) Stage 1
2) Stage 2
3) Stage 3
4) Stage 4
Answer:
1) Stage 1

Question 2.
India’s population in 2011 was:
1) 1.21 billion
2) 1.43 billion
3) 0.36 billion
4) 1.03 billion
Answer:
1) 1.21 billion

Question 3.
Human Capital means:
1) Number of working people
2) Amount invested in health and education
3) Economic value of knowledge skills and health
4) Population in the working age group
Answer:
3) Economic value of knowledge skills and health

Question 4.
India’s HDI category is:
1) Very high
2) High
3) Medium
4) Low
Answer:
3) Medium

Question 5.
State having the highest percentage of ST population in 2011:
1) Madhya Pradesh
2) Arunachal Pradesh
3) Mizoram
4) Sikkim
Answer:
3) Mizoram

Question 6.
Sex ratio is calculated as:
Number of males per 1000 females
2) Number of males per 100000 females
3) Number of females per 1000 males
4) Number of females per 100000 males
Answer:
3) Number of females per 1000 males

Question 7.
Health care share of GDP recommended by National Health Policy 2017.
1) 2 %
2) 2.5 %
3) 3 %
4) 3.5 %
Answer:
2) 2.5 %

Question 8.
The legal limit to marriage age for men in India is:
1) 18 years
2) 20 years
3) 21 years
4) 25 years
Answer:
3) 21 years

Question 9.
The following epidemic is totally eradicated in India:
1) Cholera
2) Chicken pox
3) Measles
4) Smallpox
Answer:
4) Smallpox

Question 10.
According to UN Population Fund (UNFPA) the correct working age of the population is:
1) 15-59 years
2) 15-60 years
3) 15-65 years
4) 15-64 years
Answer:
4) 15-64 years

Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
The theory of Demographic Transition was first proposed by ______________ in 1929.
Answer:
Warren S Thompson

Question 2.
______________ is calied the Year of Great Divide.
Answer:
1921

Question 3.
The score of Human Capital Index ranges ______________.
Answer:
0 to 1

Question 4.
Life expectancy for India as estimated by WHO in 2024 is ______________.
Answer:
70.1 years (70 years)

Question 5.
The proportion of total workforce employed in service sector is more that the proportion employed in ______________ sector.
Answer:
agriculture

One Word Answers

Question 1.
Which stage of demographic transition is called the low stationary stage?
Answer:
4th stage

Question 2.
In which year was the countrywide simultaneous census conducted for the first time in India?
Answer:
1881

Question 3.
Which State had the highest percentage of SC population in 2011 ?
Answer:
Punjab

Question 4.
What is the estimated percentage of population under the age of 35 years in India?
Answer:
65%

Question 5.
What is the new education pattern recommended by NEP 2020?
Answer:
5 + 3 + 3 + 4

Reviewing AP Inter 2nd Year Economics Study Material Chapter 4 India as Developing Economy Global View Questions and Answers can help students prepare confidently for exams.

AP Inter 2nd Year Economics 4th Lesson India as Developing Economy Global View Questions and Answers

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
State the World Bank classification of the countries.
Answer:
World Bank classification of the countries based on Gross National Income (GNI) per capita.

1. Low-income countries
2. Lower-middle-income countries
3. Upper-middle-income countries
4. High-income countries

Question 2.
State the Drain Theory.
Answer:

1. The Drain Theory was proposed by Dadabhai Naoroji.
2. It states that wealth was continuously transferred from India to Britain during British rule without adequate return. This drain of wealth led to poverty and underdevelopment in India.

Question 3.
What is Demographic dividend?
Answer:

1. Demographic dividend refers to the economic growth potential arising from a higher proportion of working-age population (15-64 years) in the total population.
2. This leads to increased productivity and economic development.

Question 4.
Explain the term Gross Value Added.
Answer:

1. Gross Value Added (GVA) is an economic measure used to assess the sectoral contribution to an economy.
2. It is calculated by subtracting net taxes on products from GDP at market prices, which gives GVA at basic prices.

Question 5.
How do you describe India as an exporting economy? Give illustration.
Answer:

1. India is a leading exporter globally. It is ranking 9th in merchandise exports and accounting for about 2.61% of the world’s total exports, as per the World Trade Organization.
2. India has a strong position in global exports. It is the largest exporter of rice, while IT and software services are major export earners, and it is also a leading exporter in the pharmaceutical sector.

Question 6.
How can you say that poverty declined in India?
Answer:

1. Poverty in India has declined significantly. The percentage of people below the poverty line has reduced overtime from 57.1 % in 1951 to 37.2 % in 2004-05.
2. Further sharp decline in recent years according to NITI Aayog and World Bank estimates.

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Describe Indian economy during British rule.
Answer:
Indian Economy during British Rule: The Indian economy was stagnant, exploitative, and underdeveloped during British rule (1757 – 1947).

1. Ruin of Agriculture: Agriculture declined due to exploitative land systems and forced commercialisation, leading to frequent droughts and poverty.
2. Ruin of Handicrafts: Handicraft industries were ruined as they could not compete with machine- made British goods, causing unemployment.
3. Raw Material Exports: India became a colonial export economy, supplying raw materials and importing finished goods.
4. Slow Industrialisation: Industrialisation was slow and weak with little support from the British government.
5. Drain Theory: The Drain Theory explained the continuous transfer of wealth to Britain.
6. As a result, India faced low growth, high poverty, and economic backwardness at independence.

Question 2.
Explain income and wealth inequalities in India.
Answer:
Income and Wealth Inequalities in India
Despite a significant decline in poverty, income and wealth inequalities prevailed in India.

1. Income Inequality: According to NITI Aayog estimates (in 2022-23), the top 10% earn about 57% of national income, while the bottom 50% receive only 13%. It shows a wide income gap.
2. Wealth Inequality: Oxfam reported that the richest 1% own over 40% of the country’s wealth, whereas the bottom 50% hold only 3%. It indicates extreme concentration of assets.
3. Unequal Growth in Wealth: A large share of newly generated wealth goes to the rich; 73% of new wealth went to the top 1 %, while only 1 % reached the bottom half.
4. Consumption Inequality: Although consumption inequality is comparatively lower it does not reflect the true extent of income and wealth disparities, which remain high.

Question 3.
Explain Viksit Bharat 2047 vision.
Answer:
Viksit Bharat 2047 Vision: The Viksit Bharat 2047 vision is a strategic roadmap to transform India into a developed nation by 2047, marking 100 years of independence.

1. Economic Goais: The vision aims to achieve a GDP of $ 30 – 40 trillion and raise per capita income to $15,000-18,000.
2. Social Goals: Zero poverty, inclusive development, financial empowerment, and quality education and healthcare for all.
3. Environmental Goals: Net-zero carbon emissions and sustainable growth.
4. GYAN Framework: It focuses on four key sections of society – Garib (poor), Yuva (youth), Annadata (farmers), and Nari Shakti (women) – to ensure inclusive development.
5. Six Strategic Pillars: The plan emphasizes manufacturing, knowledge systems, global trade, green energy, tourism, and global development as key drivers of growth.
6. Overall Aim: The vision seeks to create a prosperous, inclusive, and environmentally sustainable India with strong global presence.

Question 4.
Describe the four phases of India’s economic growth between 1951 and 2020.
Answer:
Four Phases of India’s Economic Growth (1951-2020) India’s economic growth since 1951 can be divided into four phases based on national income and per capita income growth:

1. Phase 1 (1951 to 1980) – Hindu Rate of Growth: Economic growth was slow, with national income growing at 3.6% and per capita income at 1.4%, leading to only modest improvements in living standards.

2. Phase 2 (1980 to 2000) – Acceleration and Reform: Growth accelerated, with national income rising at 5.7% and per capita income at 3.5%, supported by policy changes and economic reforms after 1991.

3. Phase 3 (2000 to 2017)- Rapid Growth Path: The economy achieved high growth (around 7%), with faster increases in per capita income (5.4%) and strong development in infrastructure, industry, and services, making India one of the fastest-growing economies.

4. Phase 4 (2017 to 2020) – Slight Slowdown and Structural Focus: Growth slowed slightly but remained positive, with national income growth at 5.9% and per capita income at 4.5%, with emphasis on structural reforms, digital economy, and sustainable development.

Question 5.
Mention the important features of Climate change performance index.
Answer:

1. Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI): It is used to evaluate and compare the climate protection performance of countries.
2. CCPI evaluates climate performance based on Global Greenhouse Gas (GHGs) emissions, renewable energy use, and climate policy, which are the core areas of assessment.
3. Broad Coverage: The index covers 63 countries and the European Union, making it a comprehensive global assessment of climate efforts.
4. Unique Ranking Structure: A distinctive feature is that the first three ranks are not awarded, as no country is considered to be performing adequately in all categories to prevent dangerous climate change.
5. Top Performers and India’s Position: In the latest rankings, Denmark is placed 4th, while India ranks 10th with a score of 67.99, reflecting its performance in climate action.
6. Responsible Organizations: The index is published jointly by Germanwatch, New Climate Institute, and Climate Action Network International.

Question 6.
Describe India’s current global economic position.
Answer:
India’s Current Global Economic Position India’s current global economic position shows its emergence as a major economic power, though it still faces developmental challenges.

1) Major Global Economy: India is the fourth-largest economy in the world with a nominal GDP of about $4.19 trillion (2025), reflecting strong economic growth.

2) Income and Demographic Strength: It is classified as a lower-middle-income country by the World Bank, with a GNI per capita of about $2650, and is the most populous country, providing a large market and demographic dividend.

3) Strong Global Trade and Sectoral Position: India ranks 9th in merchandise exports (2.61% of world exports) and has become a hub for IT services, pharmaceuticals, and skilled professionals, along with being a leading agricultural producer.

4) Global Integration and Rankings: Since 1991 reforms, India is highly integrated into the global economy, with trade forming about 45% of GDP, and holds positions such as 10th in CCPI, 39th in Global Innovation Index, and 41st in World Competitiveness Index.

5) Despite these strengths, India faces challenges like income inequality, unemployment, and low HDI ranking, and aims to improve further through the Viksit Bharat 2047vision.

Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Justify India being called a developing economy with reference to the progress achieved.
Answer:
India as a Developing Economy with Reference to Progress:

India is categorized as a developing economy because it has transformed from a stagnant and underdeveloped economy after British rule into a rapidly growing major economy, though it is still classified as a lower-middle income country by the World Bank.

1) Robust Economic Growth: India has achieved remarkable growth, with GNP increasing 59 times since 1950-51 and per capita income rising about 9 times. This indicates improvement in income levels and living standards, supported by a rise in domestic savings (from 9.4% to 30.2% of GDP), which provides capital for investment and development.

2) Structural Transformation: There has been a major shift in the structure of the economy. The share of agriculture declined from 53.1 % to about 14.4%, while the services sector increased to around 54.9%, becoming the main driver of growth. Industries have also diversified into sectors like automobiles, chemicals, and pharmaceuticals, showing modernization.

3) Significant Poverty Reduction: India has made substantial progress in reducing poverty. The multidimensional poverty rate declined from 55.34% to 14.96%, and people living below the international poverty line also reduced significantly. This reflects better access to income, education, and basic services.

4) Improved Demographic and Social Indicators: Indicators of human development have improved considerably. Life expectancy increased from 37 years to over 72 years, while fertility and infant mortality rates declined sharply. Literacy levels have risen, and infrastructure such as roads and foreign exchange reserves have expanded, improving overall quality of life.

5) Global Integration and Trade: India has become more integrated with the global economy, shifting from exporting raw materials to becoming a global hub for IT services and pharmaceuticals. Its trade-to-GDP ratio has increased, and it ranks among the top exporters in the world.

6) Although India has achieved significant progress in economic growth, social development, and global integration, challenges like income inequality, unemployment, and lower per capita income persist. Hence, it is still considered a developing economy progressing towards developed status.

Question 2.
Describe the trends in the growth rates of India’s national income.
Answer:
Trends in the Growth Rates of India’s National Income
1) Pre-Independence Stagnation (1860-1947): During British rule, the economy was characterized by long-term stagnation. The average per capita income growth was only 0.5%, while between 1900-01 and 1946-47, GDP grew at just 0.9% and per capita income at 0.1%, indicating negligible improvement in living standards.

2) Phase 1 (1951 to 1980) – “Hindu Rate of Growth”: In the early post-independence period, growth remained slow, with national income increasing at 3.6% and per capita income at 1.4%, resulting in modest improvement in living conditions.

3) Phase 2 (1980 to 2000) – Acceleration and Reform:
Growth accelerated to 5.7%, and per capita income rose to 3.5%, supported by policy changes and especially the economic reforms of 1991, which boosted efficiency and openness.

4) Phase 3 (2000 to 2017) – Rapid Growth Path:
The economy entered a high growth phase (7.1 %), with per capita income rising at 5.4%. India emerged as one of the fastest-growing economies, driven by expansion in infrastructure, industry, and services.

5) Phase 4 (2017 to 2020) – Slight Slowdown:
Growth slowed to 5.9%, with a decline from 6.9% to 4.2%, reflecting structural challenges and global factors, though growth remained positive.

6) COVID-19 Impact (2020-21):
The pandemic caused a sharp contraction, with GNI falling by -6.2% and per capita income by -8.9%, indicating a severe but temporary economic shock.

7) Recovery and Stabilisation (2021-2025):
The economy showed strong resilience with a V-shaped recovery, with growth rising to 9.9% in 2021-22, followed by stable growth of around 7%-7.6%, and 6.5% (2024-25 estimate).

8) Overall Trend: These trends indicate a shift from slow and stagnant growth to faster, more stable, and globally integrated growth, making India a resilient and emerging major economy.

Question 3.
Discuss the trends in sectoral distribution of India’s national income.
Answer:
The trends in the sectoral distribution of India’s national income, primarily measured through Gross Value Added (GVA) at basic prices, reflect a significant structural transformation from an agrarian economy to a service-led one.

To understand these trends, the economy of India is divided into three primary sectors:

1. Agriculture and Allied Sector: Includes crops, livestock, forestry, logging, fishing, and aquaculture.
2. Industrial Sector: Covers manufacturing, mining, quarrying, electricity, gas, water, other utilities, and construction.
3. Services Sector: Encompasses trade, hotels, transport, communication, financial services, real estate, professional services, public administration, and defense.

Historical Sectoral shift (1950-51 to 2024-25):
The following table highlights the changes in the share of each sector in the total GVA at constant prices:

1) Declining Predominance of Agriculture: At independence, agriculture was the dominant sector, contributing over 53% of GVA, but its share has steadily declined to about 14.4% by 2024-25 as the economy developed. However, nearly 45% of the workforce still depends on agriculture, indicating a dualistic economic structure with low productivity in the sector.

2) Steady Expansion of the Industrial Sector: The industrial sector grew from 16.6% in 1950- SI to 24% by 1970-71 due to emphasis on heavy industries in early Five-Year Plans. Though growth was slower later, its share increased to about 30.7% by 2024-25, with diversification from simple handicrafts to modern industries like automobiles, pharmaceuticals, and chemicals.

3) Rapid Growth of the Services Sector: The services sector has shown the most significant growth, overtaking agriculture and industry to become the dominant contributor to national income. Its share increased from 30.3% in 1950-51 to about 54.9% in 2024-25, making it as important today as agriculture was at the time of independence.

Conclusion: The data shows a clear shift where the non-agricultural sectors (industry and services) contribute about 85.2% of total GVA, indicating strong structural change. India has emerged as a global leader in IT and software services, which are major export earners and key drivers of growth. This transition from an agrarian to a service-led economy highlights India’s progress as a rapidly developing nation.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
India is categorised as
1) Undeveloped economy
2) Developed economy
3) Developing economy
4) Developing high income economy
Answer:
3) Developing economy

Question 2.
Period of the rule by East India company in India
1) 1557 – 1658
2) 1658 – 1757
3) 1757 – 1858
4) 1858 – 1947
Answer:
3) 1757 – 1858

Question 3.
Drain theory was propounded by
1) B.G. Tilak
2) Dadabhai Naoroji
3) Palme Dutt
4) Daniel Thorner
Answer:
2) Dadabhai Naoroji

Question 4.
Percentage of poor rural people in 1951
1) 59.3 %
2) 46.5 %
3) 57.1 %
4) 52.5 %
Answer:
1) 59.3 %

Question 5.
Total fertility rate as per UNFPA 2025
1) 1.7
2) 1.8
3) 2.0
4) 1.9
Answer:
4) 1.9

Question 6.
Who emphasized the importance of capital formation to break vicious circles of poverty?
1) Samuelson
2) RagnarNurkes
3) Simon Kuznets
4) AmartyaSen
Answer:
2) RagnarNurkes

Question 7.
GER target for higher education to be achieved by 2035 as per NEP 2020
1) 30 %
2) 40 %
3) 50 %
4) 55 %
Answer:
3) 50 %

Question 8.
The letter ‘A’ in GYAN refers to
1) Agriculture
2) Allied Sectors
3) Animal Husbandry
4) Annadata
Answer:
4) Annadata

Question 9.
According to international poverty line of $3 per day, India’s poverty ratio 2022-23
1) 2.3 %
2) 5.3 %
3) 6.7 %
4) 8.2 %
Answer:
2) 5.3 %

Question 10.
India’s HDI value in the HDI2023 as per HDR, 2025
1) 0.685
2) 0.665
3) 0.865
4) 0.586
Answer:
1) 0.685

Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
The World Bank classifies the countries based on Gross National Income _____________.
Answer:
Per capita

Question 2.
The Indian industry that was first hurt by industrialization in England was _____________.
Answer:
Textiles

Question 3.
India is the _____________ largest economy in the world in 2025.
Answer:
4th

Question 4.
India’s real GDP grew at _____________ percent per year from 1900-01 to 1946-47.
Answer:
0.9

Question 5.
The services sector accounted for _____________ percent of the GVA in 2023-24 as per the advance estimates.
Answer:
54.9

One Word Answers

Question 1.
How do you describe coexistence of modern and traditional agriculture in economy?
Answer:
Dualistic economy

Question 2.
Which state has the second-highest GDP growth rate in 2024-25 at 2011-12 constant prices?
Answer:
Andhra Pradesh

Question 3.
Which Mission digitises India’s manuscript heritage?
Answer:
Gyan Bharatam Mission

Question 4.
What was the average growth rate of the Indian economy from 1951 -52 to 1979-802
Answer:
3.6 %

Question 5.
What is the economic goal of Viksit Bharat 2047 Vision in terms of GDP?
Answer:
$ 30 – 40 trillion