Dialogue Writing Skills Inter 1st Year English Grammar

For systematic learning, students can include AP Inter 1st Year English Study Material and Dialogue Writing Skills in English Inter 1st Year in their daily study routine.

Inter 1st Year English Dialogue Writing Skills with Answers

Conversation forms the basis of communication skills. Regular practice is required to equip oneself with this essential skill. Greetings, courtesies, polite way of agreement or otherwise, etc. form an important component of conversation. Learning to use them properly is, therefore, of great help.

In the Public Examination, an incomplete dialogue usually with four blanks is given. Four appropriate words or phrases are also provided. The student is required to understand the given part and respond to fill in the blanks suitably. Careful observation of the part given before and after the blank and a little bit of common sense will help the student answer this question correctly. There may be more than one possible way of filling in the given blank. One should not worry about this as long as the completed dialogue sounds meaningful. Study the following dialogues.

Examples

1. Read the dialogue given below regarding a complaint over a phone call and All the blanks with the suitable dialogues given below.

Making a Complaint – a faulty Television Set

Shopkeeper : ___________ (1) ___________
Customer : Yes please! I have a complaint regarding with television set.
Shopkeeper : ___________ (2)___________
Customer : Oh, it s SM004 – NEW. I bought this television here about three months ago, but the sound and picture quality are not so good.
Shopkeeper : Can you explain in more detail ?
Customer : ___________ (3) ___________ there’s a dark line down the left – hand side of the screen.
Shopkeeper : Do you have an outdoor antenna ?
Customer : Yes, I do.
Shopkeeper : ___________ (4) ___________
Customer : Several times.
Shopkeeper : ___________ (5) ___________
Customer : I am not so happy with the television set. I want a refund.
Shopkeeper : I’m afraid it isn’t our policy to give refunds, sir.
Customer : ___________ (6) ___________

Choose the correct dialogue from the following to make the above conversation meaningful.

a) Well then, I want to talk to the manager.
b) I’ll get our engineers to have a look at it.
c) Have you tried adjusting the antenna ?
d) Good afternoon, can 1 halp you ?
e) May I know the model number of it ?
f) Oh, yes, of course, the picture is always flickering and there’s an annoying hissing sound in the background.
Answers:
1) Good afternoon, can I help you ?
2) May I know the model number of it ?
3) Oh, yes, of course, the picture is always flickering and there is an annoying hissing sound in the background.
4) Have you tried adjusting the antenna ?
5) I’ll get our engineers to have a look at it.
6) Well then, I want to talk to the manager.

Dialogue Writing Skills Inter 1st Year English Grammar

2. Choose the appropriate dialogue from the given options to make the conversation below meaningful.
(Sita dropped a glass on the floor. Naturally, her mother asks for an explanation.)

Mother : What was that terrible noise ? ___________ (1) ___________ anything ?
Sita : I’m sorry, mom. ___________ (2) ___________ and it broke.
Mother : Were you hurt ?
Sita : No, but I’m really sorry.
Mother : I’m glad that you aren’t hurt ! It was ___________ (3) ___________ on your 1st birthday!
Sita : I feel bad for breaking the glass.
Mother : Haven’t I told you to handle glassware carefully ?
Sita : The glass was too slippery.
Mother : It’s okay, but you’ve ___________ (4) ___________.
Sita : Sure, Mom. ___________ (5) ___________ again.

a) I dropped a glass on the floor.
b) a gift from your aunt Meena
c) got to be cautious next time!
d) I’ll not let it happen
e) Did you drop
Answers:
a) Did you drop
b) I dropped a glass on the floor
c) a gift from your aunt
d) Meena got to be cautious next time!
e) I’ll not let it happen

Exercises For Practice

I. what happened, mind, see, slowly recuperating

Mahesh : Hi, Suresh. Why didn’t you turn up to college yesterday?
Suresh : Hello, Mahesh. I wasn’t feeling well yesterday.
Mahesh : ___________ (1) ___________ ?
Suresh : I had a severe stomach ache.
Mahesh : How are you now? Are you okay ?
Suresh : Yes, I’m ___________ (2) ___________ now.
Mahesh : Did you ___________ (3) ___________ the doctor ?
Suresh : Yes, I have seen the doctor. He told me to avoid fast food and have my meals on time.
Mahesh : I’ve seen you skip meals for a plate of pani poori many times.
Suresh : I love pani poori. But now, I’ve made up my mind not to have them.
Mahesh : Thank God. That must have been a terrible pain. Good that you changed your ___________ (4) ___________.
Answers:
1. What happened?
2. slowly recuperating
3. see
4. mind

Dialogue Writing Skills Inter 1st Year English Grammar

II. sure, hungry, else you need, replace

Victor : Excuse me, I ordered pasta, but this is noodles.
Waiter : I’m terribly sorry, sir. Let me ___________ (1) ___________ this immediately.
Victor : Thank you. Please ensure it’s vegetarian, as I requested earlier.
Waiter : ___________ (2) ___________, sir. I’ll double-check your order and bring it back soon.
Victor : I hope it doesn’t take too long. I’m quite ___________ (3) ___________.
Waiter : It won’t take long, sir. Thank you for your patience.
Victor : I appreciate your quick response.
Waiter : You’re welcome. Please let me know if there’s anything ___________ (4) ___________.
Answers:
1. replace
2. Sure
3. hungry
4. else you need

III. resolved, sure, hours, phone number

Rahul : Excuse me, my internet hasn’t been working for two days now.
Support Agent : I’m sorry to hear that, sir. Could you please provide your ___________(1)___________?
Rahul : Sure, it’s 9876543210. Can you fix this by today ?
Support Agent : I’ll escalate the issue right away. You should have it resolved within a few ___________ (2) ___________.
Rahul : Thank you. I really need it for an important online meeting.
Support Agent : I understand, sir. We’ll prioritize your request.
Rahul : Will you notify me once the issue is resolved ?
Support Agent : ___________ (3) ___________, sir. You’ll receive a confirmation message once it’s ___________ (4) ___________.
Answers:
1. phone number
2. hours
3. Sure
4. resolved

Exercises

Read each set of dialogues below and complete the blanks with appropriate words or phrases from the word bank provided.

I. expensive / iPhones / budget phones / tough

Ramu : I’m thinking of buying a mobile phone. I really like the iPhone.
Charan : ___________ (1) ___________ are amazing, no doubt!
Ramu : Many of my school friends have bought one.
Charan : Yeah, some of my friends have it too. But………… do you have the money ? It’s pretty expensive.
Ramu : It is ___________ (2) ___________. I know. That’s why I’m planning to ask my mom.
Charan : You know, the price of an iPhone is like two months of your mom’s salary. It might be tough for her.
Ramu : Hmm, you’re right. It is ___________ (3) ___________ for her. I didn’t think of her difficulties. Now, I think a budget phone will be enough for me. I’ll get a budget phone.
Charan : Exactly! These days, ___________ (4) ___________ have almost all the features we need. It’s better not to trouble our parents unnecessarily, especially just to follow what others are doing.
Answers:
1. iPhones
2. expensive
3. tough
4. budget phones

II. homemade food / for both of us / I’m hungry / let’s go

Sowmya : I’m famished. Shall we go out to eat something?
Navya : ___________ (1) ___________ too, but I want homemade food.
Sowmya : Homemade food isn’t tasty. At least I want something spicy and tasty.
Navya : Sure, but ___________ (2) ___________ is healthy. And we can cook our
Sowmya : But we have neither the energy nor the patience, not even the skill to cook.
Navya : You are correct.
Sowmya : I will pay for both of us. Shall we go out?
Navya : Sure, but you will pay ___________ (3) ___________
Sowmya : Let’s go out!
Navya : ___________ (4) ___________
Answers:
1. I’m hungry
2. homemade food
3. for both of us
4. Let’s go.

Dialogue Writing Skills Inter 1st Year English Grammar

III. having fun / photos / social media / memories

Tinnu : Why are you always clicking ___________ (1) ___________ ? We are here to enjoy the trip, not to take photos.
Bannu : But I want to make memories. Lots of memories.
Tinnu : ___________ (2) ___________ of taking photos? If you don’t really enjoy, you can’t make real memories. First, let’s have some fun.
Bannu : Fun ? I’m all in our ___________ (3) ___________. But don’t you think others need to know that we are having fun ?
Tinnu : We need to share our happiness, not our photos. By sharing our photos, we are just making others jealous.
Bannu : I think we are just inspiring them. It depends on how you look at it. I don’t want to blame social media.
Tinnu : Even I won’t blame ___________ (4) __________. But social media just increases our fears. So please keep your camera away.
Bannu : Sure. Come here, one more selfie.
Answers:
1. photos
2. Memories
3. having fun
4. social media

IV. deep breath /nothing / do you / shout

Rahim : Hey, I didn’t understand what our teacher said. I have a doubt.
Raju : __________ (1) __________ ? Then ask him. He’ll explain.
Rahim : But, I’m afraid. What if he shouts?
Raju : Why will he __________ (2) __________ at you? He won’t do such things. He will explain. Trust me.
Rahim : But what if others laugh at me? What if they think I know nothing?
Raju : Knowing __________ (3) __________ is not a problem. Not learning is a problem. Even others will learn something through your question. Take a deep breath.
Rahim : Ok, I’ll ask the doubt myself. Let me take a __________ (4) __________.
Raju : All the best. I know you’ll rock!
Answers:
1. Do you
2. shout
3. nothing
4. deep breath

V. our parents / greedy / everything / exams

Gita : Why do you always study so much? You are too greedy.
Madhu : I’m not __________ (1) __________. I just want to learn as much as I can. I don’t want to leave anything to chance.
Gita : But that’s too much. If I get some 50%, that’s enough for me. If I get less than that, I have to face the anger of my parents.
Madhu : I don’t think we should read for __________(2) __________. I read it because I love it.
Gita : But those questions won’t be asked in the exam.
Madhu : We shouldn’t read for the sake of __________ (3) __________. Imagine you go to a doctor with a strange problem, and the doctor says that your problem wasn’t asked in her exam. How would you feel?
Gita : I don’t go to such doctors. I want my doctor to know everything.
Madhu : It’s good thinking. But isn’t it fair? You expect others to know __________ (4) __________ but you don’t learn everything? W’e all should do our best.
Answers:
1. Thank you
2. cold and cough
3. That’s very nice
4. 200 rupees

Dialogue Writing Skills Inter 1st Year English Grammar

VI. the train to Delhi / you ‘re welcome / on time / excuse me

Doctor : Please take your seat.
Patient : __________ (1) __________
Doctor : Please tell me, how can I help you?
Patient : Sir, I have been suffering from fever for the last two days.
Doctor : Ok. Do you have a cold, cough, or anything else?
Patient : I have __________ (2) __________. Please give me medicine, doctor. I don’t want an injection.
Doctor : Don’t worry. I’m not giving you an injection. These medicines are enough.
Patient : __________ (3) __________ of you. How much is the fee?
Doctor : The fee is __________ (4) __________. Please pay it at the counter.
Answers:
1. Thank you
2. cold and cough
3. That’s very nice
4. 200

VII. the train to Delhi / you ‘re welcome / on time / excuse me

Customer : ___________, on which platform will the train to Delhi arrive?
Enquiry : __________ (2) __________ will arrive on platform number four.
Customer : When will it arrive? Is it on time?
Enquiry : The train will arrive in fifteen minutes, and yes, it is __________ (3) __________
Customer : Thank you for the information.
Enquiry : __________ (4) __________. Do you need any more information?
Customer : No, that’s all. Thank you for the help once again.
Answers:
1. Excuse me
2. The train to Delhi
3. on times
4. You’re welcome

VIII. thank you / good morning/hear that / studies

Principal : Good morning, Mr Anil. Welcome to the parent-teacher meeting.
Mr Anil : __________ (1) __________. Sir.
Principal : Please take a seat.
Mr Anil : __________ (2) __________. Sir. I am eager to know about my son’s progress.
Principal : Of course, your son is doing well in __________ (3) __________.
Mr Anil : It’s nice to __________ (4) __________. The whole credit goes to your staff.
Principal : It’s our duty to bring the best out of the students. I thank you for visiting.
Answers:
1. Good morning
2. Thank you
3. studies
4. hear that

IX. neglecting / just an exam / a movie / completing

Arjun : Hi! I am planning to go for a movie. Will you accompany me?
Karthik : __________ (1) __________! Are you even thinking? Tomorrow we have an exam.
Arjun : It’s __________ (2) __________ I’m very eager to see the first day first show.
Karthik : Bro, it’s not just an exam. You are __________ (3) __________ your studies. It’s not good on your part.
Karthik : Exams can’t be written the other day. But you can go to the movie after the exam. Even heroes don’t skip their schedules. movie after __________ (4) __________ the exam.
Karthik : That’s a good idea.
Answers:
1. A movie
2. just an exam
3. neglecting
4. completing

X. be completed / harm / microplastics / playing

Mom : Will you please stop playing games on your mobile phone?
Son : Mom, I’m not __________ (1) __________ games. I’m watching a video.
Mom : Whatever, it’s not good for your eyes to keep looking at the screen for hours together.
Son : Mom, I’ve got a project to __________ (2) __________ by this weekend. I’m watching a video related to that.
Mom : What’s the project about?
Son : It’s about microplastics.
Mom : __________ (3) __________. What is it?
Son : Just like plastic, there are very tiny particles that can cause harm to the Earth.
Mom : How do they cause __________ (4) __________ to the Earth?
Son : The usage of plastic has become a part of our life. When we dispose of any plastic object, it doesn’t degrade in the soil. Moreover, it pollutes our air, soil, and water too.
Mom : Interesting. Tell me more about microplastics once you complete your project.
Son : Sure, Mom.
Answers:
1. Playing
2. be completed
3. Microplastics
4. harm

XI. Read the following dialogue and fill the blanks with the words given below.

for you / thank you very much /your bill/ please wait

Sophia : Excuse me, I believe there’s been a msitake in my bill.
Manager : I’m sorry to hear that. Could you please show me __________ (1) __________ ?
Sophia : Here it is. I was charged for two desserts, but I only had one.
Manager : Let me check this for you. __________ (2) __________ while I verify it.
Sophia : Sure, I’ll wait. Thank you for looking into it.
Manager : You’re right. There was an error. I’ll fix it and issue a new bill right away.
Sophia : __________ (3) __________. Mistakes happen, but it’s great to see such prompt service.
Manager : Thank you for your understanding. Here’s your corrected bill. Please let us know if there’s anything else we can do __________ (4) __________.
Sophia : Thank you. Everything else was perfect. I’ll definitely visit again.
Answers:
1. your bill
2. Please wait
3. Thank you very much
4. for you

XII. Read the following dialogue and fill the blanks with the words given below.

have / hoped / advance / thank you very much

Elsa : Hi, Mia. I’m so sorry I couldn’t come to your party last night.
Mia : It’s okay, Elsa. But I really __________ (1) __________ you would be there.
Elsa : I know, and I feel terrible about it. Something urgent came up at home.
Mia : I understand. But next time, please let me know in __________ (2) __________.
Elsa : Absolutely. I’ll make it up to you with a coffee treat soon!
Mia : That sounds good ! But next time, you really __________ (3) __________ to make it.
Elsa : I promise. Your party pictures looked amazing!
Mia : __________(4) __________! It was a great evening. I hope to
see you at the next one.
Answers:
1. hoped
2. advance
3. have
4. Thank you very much

AP Inter 1st Year Maths Exercise 7c Solutions

Referring to the AP Inter 1st Year Maths Study Material Chapter 7 Binomial Theorem Exercise 7c Solutions makes it easier to understand complex problems.

AP Inter 1st Year Maths Binomial Theorem Solutions Exercise 7c

Find the coefficient of

Question 1.
x5 in (x + 3)8
Solution:
The general term Tr+1 of the binomial expansion (a + b)n is given by Tr+1 = nCr an-rbr
Here x5 is the Tr+1 term so a = x, b = 3 and n = 8
Tr+1 = 8Crx8-r3r ………..(1)
To find out the coefficient of x5, We have to equate x5 = x8-r =>r = 3
Putting the value of r in (1), we get T3+1 = 8C3 × x8-3 33
T4 = \(\frac{8!}{3!5!}\) × x5 × 27 = 1512 x5
Hence the coefficient of x5 = 1512

Question 2.
a5b7 in (a – 2b)12.
Solution:
The general term Tr+ t of the binomial expansion (a + b)n is given by Tr+1 = nCr an-rbr
Here a = a, b = -2b & n = 12
Substituting above values, we get Tr+1 = 12Cr a12-r (-2b)r … (1)
To find out the coefficient of a5, We equate a12-r = a5, r = 7
Putting r = 7 in (1) ⇒ Tg = 12C7 a5(-2b)7
T8 = \(\frac{12!}{7!5!}\) × a5 × (-2)7b7
= -101376 a5b7
Hence, the coefficient of a5b7 = -101376.

AP Inter 1st Year Maths Exercise 7c Solutions

Write the general term in the expansion of

Question 3.
(x3 – y)6
Solution:
The general term Tr+1 of the binomial expansion (a + b)n is given by Tr+1 = nCra”-b’… (1)
Here, a = x2, n = 6 and b = – y
Putting above values in (1)
Tr+1 = 6Cr x2(6-r) (-1)r yr
= 6Cr x12-2r x (-1)r X yr
= (-1)r 6Cr x12-2r yr

Question 4.
(x2 – yx)12, x ≠ 0.
Solution:
The general term Tr+x of the binomial expansion (a + b)n is given by Tr+1 = nCr an-r br
Here n = 12, a = x2 and b = -y x
Substituting the above values, we get
Tr+1 = 12Cr x2(12-r) (-1)r yrxr = (-1)r 12Cr x24-2r yr xr
= (-1)r 12Cr x24-r. yr

Question 5.
In the expansion of (1 + a)m+n, prove that the coefficients of am and an are equal.
Solution:
We know that the general term Tr+1 of the binomial expansion (a + b)n is given by
Tr+1 = nCr an-r br
Here n = m + n, a = 1 and b = a
Substituting the values in the general term
Tr+1 = m+nC. 1m+n-rar = m+nCr ar ………..(1)
Now, we have the general term for the expression is, Tr+1 = m+nCr ar
Now, for coefficient of am, Tm+1 = m+nCm am
Hence, for the coefficient of m, the value of r = m
So, the coefficient is m+nCm
Similarly, the coefficient of an is m+nCn
m+nCm = \(\frac{(\mathrm{m}+\mathrm{n})!}{\mathrm{m}!\mathrm{n}!}\) And also, m+nCn = \(\frac{(\mathrm{m}+\mathrm{n})!}{\mathrm{m}!\mathrm{n}!}\)
The coefficient of am and an are same that is \(\frac{(\mathrm{m}+\mathrm{n})!}{\mathrm{m}!\mathrm{n}!}\)

Question 6.
The coefficients of the (r – 2)th, rth and (r + 2)th terms in the expansion of (x + 1)n are in the ratio 1:3:5. Find n and r.
Solution:
The general term Tr+1 of the binomial expansion (a + b)n is given by Tr+1 = nCr an-r br
Here, the binomial is (1 + x)n where a = 1, b = x and n = n

The (r + 1)th term is given by
Tr+1 = nCr 1n-r xr ⇒ T(r + 1) = nCr xr
The coefficient of (r + 1)th term is nCr

The rth term is given by (r – 1)th term
T(r – 1 – 1) = nCr-1
⇒ Tr = nCr – 1xr-1
∴ The coefficeint of (r – 1)th term is nCr – 1

For (r – 1)th term, we will take (r – 2)th term
Tr – 2 + 1 = nCr-2 xr-2
Tr-1 = nCr-2xr-2
∴ The coefficeint of (r – 1)th term is nCr – 2

Given that the coefficient of (r – 1)th, rth and r + 1th term are in ratio 1: 3 : 5
Therefore,
\(\frac{\text { Coefficient of }(\mathrm{r}-1)^{\text {th }} \text { term }}{\text { Coefficient of } \mathrm{r}^{\text {th }} \text { term }}=\frac{1}{3}\)

\(\frac{{ }^n C_{r-2}}{{ }^n C_{r-1}}=\frac{1}{3} \Rightarrow \frac{\frac{n!}{(r-2)!(n-r+2)!}}{\frac{n!}{(r-1)(n-r+1)!}}=\frac{1}{3}\)

On rearrangement, we get
\(\frac{n!}{(r-2)!(n-r+2)!} \times \frac{(r-1)!(n-r+1)!}{n!}=\frac{1}{3}\)

By multiplying
⇒ \(\frac{(\mathrm{r}-1)(\mathrm{r}-2)!(\mathrm{n}-\mathrm{r}+1)!}{(\mathrm{r}-2)!(\mathrm{n}-\mathrm{r}+2)!}=\frac{1}{3} \Rightarrow \frac{(\mathrm{r}-1)(\mathrm{n}-\mathrm{r}+1)!}{(\mathrm{n}-\mathrm{r}+2)(\mathrm{n}-\mathrm{r}+1)!}=\frac{1}{3}\)

On simplifying we get,
⇒ \(\frac{(\mathrm{r}-1)}{(\mathrm{n}-\mathrm{r}+2)}=\frac{1}{3}\)
⇒ 3r – 3 = n – r + 2
⇒ n – 4r + 5 = 0 …. (1)

Also, \(\frac{\text { the coefficient of } r^{\text {th }} \text { term }}{\text { coefficient of } r+1^{\text {th }} \text { term }}=\frac{3}{5} \Rightarrow \frac{\frac{n!}{(r-1)!(n-r+1)!}}{\frac{n!}{r!(n-r)!}}=\frac{3}{5}\)

On rearranging we get,
⇒ \(\frac{n!}{(r-1)!(n-r+1)!} \times \frac{r!(n-r)!}{n!}=\frac{3}{5}\)

By multiplying
⇒ \(\frac{r(r-1)!(n-r)!}{r-1)!(n-r+1)!}=\frac{3}{5} \Rightarrow \frac{r(n-r)!}{(n-r+1)!}=\frac{3}{5} \Rightarrow \frac{r(n-r)!}{(n-r+1)(n-r)!}=\frac{3}{5}\)

On simplifying we get,
⇒ \(\frac{r}{(n-r+1)}=\frac{3}{5}\)
⇒ 5r = 3n – 3r + 3
⇒ 8r – 3n – 3 = 0 … (2)
We have 1 and 2 as
n – 4r + 5 = 0 …(1)
8r – 3n – 3 = 0 …(2)
Multiplying equation (1) by number (2)
2n – 8r + 10 = 0 …(3)
Adding equations (2) and (3)
2n – 8r + 10 = 0
⇒ -3n – 8r – 3 = 0
⇒ -n = -7
⇒ n = 7 and r = 3

AP Inter 1st Year Maths Exercise 7c Solutions

Question 7.
Prove that the coefficient of xn in the expansion of (1 + x)2n is twice the of xn in the expansion of (1 + x)2n-1.
Solution:
The general term Tr+1, of the binomial expansion (a + b)n is given by Tr+1 = nCr+1 an-rbr
The general term for binomial (1 + x)2n is
T(r+1) = 2nCrxr …(1)
To find the coefficient of xn, r = n
Tn+1 = 2nCnxn
The coefficeint of xn = 2nCn

The general term for binomial (1 + x)2n-1 is
Tr+1 = 2n-1Cr xr

To find the co-efficient of xn
Putting r = n
Tr+1 = 2n-1Cr xr
The coefficient of xn = 2n-1Cn
We have to prove
Coefficient of xn in (1 + x)2n = 2 coefficient of xn in (1 + x)2n-1
Consider LHS = 2nCn = \(\frac{2 n!}{n!(2 n-n)!}=\frac{2 n!}{n!(n)!}\)
Again consider RHS = 2 × 2n-1Cn
= 2 × \(\frac{(2 n-1)!}{n!(2 n-1-n)!}=2 \times \frac{(2 n-1)!}{n!(n-1)!}\)
Now multiplying and dividing by n we get, 2 × \(\frac{(2 n-1)!}{n!(n-1)!} \times \frac{n}{n}=\frac{2 n(2 n-1)!}{n!n(n-1)!}=\frac{2 n!}{n!n!}\)
From above equation LHS = RHS.
Hence proved.

Question 8.
Find a positive value of m for which the coefficient of x2 in the expansion (1 + x)m is 6.
Solution:
The general term Tr+1 of the binomial expansion (a + b)n is given by Tr+1 = nCr an-r br
Here, a = 1, b = x and n = m
Putting above values, Tr+1 = mCr 1n-r xr = mCr xr
We need the coefficient of x2
Putting r = 2, T2+1 = mC2 x2
The coefficient of x2 = mC2
Given that coefficient of x2 = mC2 = 6
⇒ \(\frac{\mathrm{m}!}{2!(\mathrm{m}-2)!}\) = 6
⇒ \(\frac{\mathrm{m}(\mathrm{~m}-1)(\mathrm{m}-2)!}{2 \times 1 \times(\mathrm{m}-2)!}\) = 6
⇒ m(m – 1) = 12
⇒ m2 – m – 12 = 0
⇒ m2 – 4m + 3m – 12 = 0
⇒ m(m – 4) + 3(m – 4) = 0
⇒ (m + 3) (m – 4) = 0
⇒ m = -3, 4
We need the positive value of m, so m = 4.

Common Errors Inter 1st Year English Grammar

For systematic learning, students can include AP Inter 1st Year English Study Material and Common Errors in English Inter 1st Year in their daily study routine.

AP Inter 1st Year English Common Errors with Answers

(A) USAGE OF ARTICLES (A, An, The) :

Rule 1 : Don’t use the’ before material nouns used in general sense.
(పదార్ధాల పేర్ల ముందు ‘the‘ నుపయోగింపరాదు.)
e.g. : 1. The gold is a precious metal. (Wrong)
Gold is a precious metal. (Right)

Rule 2 : No article is used before the branches of knowledge.
(విద్యలేక జ్ఞాన సంబంధ వాక్యాలముందు ఏ విధమైన Article నుపయోగింపరాదు.)
2. The Geology is an interesting subject. (W)
Geology is an interesting subject. (R)

Rule 3 : No article is used before the names of days, months and seasons.
(దినముల, నెలల, ఋతువుల పేర్ల ముందు ఏ Article నుపయోగింపరాదు.)
e.g. : 3. Sunday is a holiday. (not the Sunday)
4. If winter comes, can spring be far behind. (not ‘the winter’, not the spring)
5. May is the hottest month. (not the May)

Rule 4 : Don’t use any article before nouns in certain phrases.
(కొన్ని phrases లోని నామవాచకాల ముందు ఏ విధమైన Article నుపయోగింపరాదు.)
e.g. : 6. by air, by sea, over hill and dale etc.

Rule 5 : Don’t use ‘the’ before the names of games.
(ఆటల పేర్ల ముందు, ‘the’ నుపయోగింపరాదు.)
e.g. : 7. I play hockey. (not ‘the hockey’ )
8. Chess is a fine game. (not ‘the chess’)

Rule 6 : No article is used before a Common Noun used in the vocative case.
(సంబోధనాత్మక సాధారణ నమాచకాల ముందు ఎట్టి Article నుపయోగింపరాదు.)
e.g. : 9. Friend, I have news to tell you. (not ‘the friend’)
10. Can you help me, brother ? (not ‘the brother’)

Rule 7 : Article is omitted when a noun indicates rank, titles, occupation etc.
(బిరుదు, వృత్తి, హూదాలను తెలిపేటపుడు Article నుపయోగింపరాదు.)
e.g. : 11. King Arthur. (not ‘the King Arthur’)
12. General Kaul. (not ‘the General Kaul’)

Rule 8 : No article is used before Collective Nouns like mankind, people, society, company etc.
(సామూహిక నామవాచకాల ముందు ఏ Article నుపయోగింపరాదు.)
e.g. : 13. We are members of society, (not ‘the society’)

Rule 9 : In certain phrases consisting of a preposition, no article is placed.
(కొన్ని phrases లో విభక్తి ప్రత్యయముల ముందు ఏ విధమైన Article నుపయోగింపరాదు.)
e.g. : 14. on demand (not ’on the demand’)
15. at home (not ‘at the home’ or ‘at a home’)

Rule 10 : Don’t put any article before names of meal when used in general sense.
(భోజన పదాలముందు ఏ Article నుపయోగింపరాదు.)
e.g.: 16. The lunch is at eleven o’ clock. (W)
Lunch is at eleven o’ clock. (R)

Common Errors Inter 1st Year English Grammar

Rule 11 : ‘A’ is used before words beginning with a consonant sound.
e.g.: 17. Frank is an European. (W)
Frank is a European. (R)

18. Here is an one-rupee note. (W)
Here is a one-rupee note. (R)

Rule 12 : ‘An’ is used before words with a vowel sound.
e.g. : 19. Brutus is a honest man. (W)
Brutus is an honest man. (R)

Rule 13 : ‘The’ is used in the following cases :
e.g. : 20. Rajahmundry is on Godavari. (W)
Rajahmundry is on the Godavari. (R)

21. My sister lives in U.K. (W)
My sister lives in the U.K. (R)

22. The higher you climb colder you get. (W)
The higher you climb the colder you get. (R)

Rule 14 : No article is used before Proper Nouns.
(పేర్లకుముందు ఏ విధమైన Article నుపయోగింపరాదు.)
23. The Delhi is the capital of India. (W)
Delhi is the capital of India. (R)

(B) USAGE OF PREPOSITIONS:

Rule 15 : ‘Since’ denotes point of time. ‘For’ denotes period of time.
e.g. : 24. She has been typing since two hours. (W)
She has been typing for two hours. (R)

25. They have been living here for 1990. (W)
They have been living here since 1990. (R)

Rule 16 : ‘At’ is used for small places and villages. ‘In’ is used in the case of towns, cities and countries.
e.g. : 26. He was born in Pamarru. (W)
He was born at Pamarru. (R)

27. He was born at Sweden. (W)
He was born in Sweden. (R)

Rule 17 : ‘Beside’ means by ‘the side of nr ‘next to’.
‘Besides’ means ‘in addition to’:
e.g. : 28. His house is besides the temple. (W)
His house is beside the temple. (R)

29. Beside Rama, Krishna was also injured. (W)
Besides Rama, Krishna was also injured. (R)

Common Errors Inter 1st Year English Grammar

(C) USAGE OF NOUNS :

Rule 18 : Some uncountable nouns are generally used in the Singular Number. They have no Plural form.
e.g. : information luggage news furniture
machinery poetry alphabet scenery
bedding clothing bread soap advice paper etc.

ఫై పదాలకు బహువచన రూపం ఉండదు. వాటిని ఎల్లప్పుడు ఏక వచనంగానే భావించాలి.వాటి ముందు a గాని an గాని, ఉపయోగింపరాదు.

furnitures (Wrong) ………………………… furniture (Right)
alphabets (Wrong) ………………….. alphabet (Right)

30. I know the alphabets. (W)
I know the alphabet. (R)

31. He gave me wrong advices. (W)
He gave me wrong advice. (R)

32. We heard a good news. (W)
We heard good news. (R)

Rule 19 : పైన పేర్కొనబడ్డ uncountable Nouns Subject గా వాడబడినప్పుడు క్రియాపదము ఏకవచనంలో ఉండాలి.
e.g. : 33. Where are my luggages? (W)
Where is my luggage? (R)

34. The news are true. (W)
The news is true. (R)

35. The news of the air crash are shocking. (W)
The news of the air crash is shocking. (R)

Rule 20 : Some nouns appear plural in form but they are used as singular.
(కొన్ని నామవాచకాలు బహువచనాలుగా కన్పించినా వాటిని ఏకవచనంగానే ప్రయోగించాలి.)
Branches of learning: Mathematics, Physics, Civics, Politics, Statistics, Mechanics etc.
Diseases : Measles, Mumps
Games : Billiards, Draughts, Gymnastics.
Other words : premises, innings, summons, wages, gallows etc.

e.g. : 36. Mathematics are his favourite subject. (W)
Mathematics is his favourite subject. (R)

37. Measles have broken out in the city. (W)
Measles has broken out in the city. (R)

38. Summons are served on him. (W)
Summons is served on him. (R)

39. Billiards are interesting. (W)
Billiards is interesting. (R)

40. The first innings are over. (W)
The first innings is over. (R)

Rule 21 : Some nouns are always used in plural.
(ఈ క్రింది నామవాచకాలను ఎల్లపుడు బహువచన రూపంలోనే వాడాలి)
Articles of dress : shoes, trousers etc.
Instruments: scissors, spectacles, bellows, tongs etc.
Other nouns : alms, ashes, annals, assets, thanks, proceeds, savings, spirits, riches, contents etc.
(ఈ పాదాలన్నింటిని బహువచనంలోనే వాడాలి. బహువచన క్రియనే ఉపయోగించాలి.)

e.g : 41. These scissors is very sharp. (W)
These scissors are very sharp. (R)

42. This is my spectacles. (W)
These are my spectacles. (R)

43. Father bought a bag of rices. (W)
Father bought a bag of rice. (R)

Exception: (మినహాయింపు)
A pair వాడబడినప్పుడు ఏకవచన క్రియనే వాడాలి.
e.g. : 44. A pair of shoes are all I want. (W)
A pair of shoes is all I want. (R)

Common Errors Inter 1st Year English Grammar

Rule 22 : Plurals of compound words are formed by adding ‘s’ to the main word.
e.g. : 45. I have two brother-in-laws. (W)
I have two brothers-in-law. (R)

Rule 23 : The following words do not take plural when preceded by a numerical.
(ఈ క్రింది పదాల ముందు సంఖ్యారూపక పదమున్నపుడు ఆ పదాలను బహువచనంలో వ్రాయరాదు)
hundred, dozen, thousand, lakh, million etc.
e.g. : 46. I need five hundreds rupees. (W)
I need five hundred rupees. (R)

Rule 24 : The meaning of brother or sister is included in the word ’cousin’. So don’t add ‘brother’ or ‘sister’ after ‘cousin’.
(Cousin అను పదము తర్వాత brother గాని sister అను పదము గాని ప్రయోగింపరాదు)
e.g. : 47. Radha is my cousin sister. (W)
Radha is my cousin. (R)

Rule 25 : Running is not used with age.
(వయస్సు గురించి చెప్పేటప్పుడు running ప్రయోగించరాదు.)
e.g. : 48. Gopal is running sixteen. (W)
Gopal is sixteen. (R)

Rule 26 : The words ‘male’, ‘female’ are used as Adjectives but not as Nouns. ‘Men’ and ‘Women’ are used as Nouns.
(male, female అను పదాలను విశేషణాలుగా ప్రయోగిస్తారు. అవి నామవాచకాలు కావు. నామవాచకాలుగా male, female ప్రయోగించాలి.)

e.g. : 49. There are twenty females working here. (W)
There are twenty women working here. (R)

50. Five hundred males attended the meeting. (W)
Five hundred men attended the meeting. (R)

Rule 27 : When two nouns are in apposition ‘s’ is added to the second word.
e.g. : 51. It is my sister’s Kamala’s house. (W)
It is my sister Kamaia’s house. (R)

(D) USAGE OF PRONOUNS :

Rule 28 : To the word yours apostrophe is not added.
e.g. : 52. Your’s faithfully. (W)
Yours faithfully. (R)

53. This book is your’s. (W)
This book is yours. (R)

Rule 29 : The first person comes last. The second person is placed before the third.
e.g. : 54. I and Gopal went to the Zoo. (W)
Gopal and I went to the Zoo. (R)

55. Ravi invited me and you to dinner. (W)
Ravi invited you and me to dinner. (R)

Rule 30 : When a personal pronoun is used as the object of a verb, it is placed in the objective case.
e.g. : 56. I accused she of theft. (W)
I accused her of theft. (R)

57. How long did you wait for myself? (W)
How long did you wait for me? (R)

58. Besides he, many others voted for me. (W)
Besides him, many others voted for me. (R)

59. It is me that scored the goal. (W)
It is I that scored the goal. (R)

Rule 31 : If a pronoun stands for a collective noun singular verb is used. If it stands for separate Individuals plural verb is used.
(కొన్ని సామూహిక పద నామవాచకాలు గుంపును నిర్దేశిస్తే క్రియ ఏకవచనంలో ఉండాలి లేక ఆ నామవాచకం వేర్వేరు వ్యక్తులను నిర్దేశిస్తే క్రియ బహువచనంలో ఉండాలి.)
e.g. : 60. The fleet, after it had served, were withdrawn. (W)
The fleet, after it had served, was withdrawn. (R)

61. The committee was divided in their opinion. (W)
The committee were divided in their opinion. (R)

Rule 32 : The verbs ‘enjoy’, ‘avail’ take Reflexive pronouns.
e.g. : 62. He enjoyed during the holidays. (W)
He enjoyed himself during the holidays. (R)

63. We avail the opportunity. (W)
We avail ourselves of the opportunity. (R)
avail + …………. self + of + sth

Rule 33 : A relative pronoun agrees with its antecedent in gender, number and person.
e.g. : 64. It is I who is to blame. (W)
It is I who am to blame. (R)

65. He is one of the Directors who has served the company. (W)
He is one of the Directors who have served the company. (R)

Rule 34 : ‘Who’ is used for persons. ‘Which’ is used for animals and lifeless objects.
e.g. : 66. A triangle who has three sides equal is called an equilateral triangle. (W)
A triangle which has three sides equal is called an equilateral triangle. (R)

Rule 35 : Each, every, anybody, nobody, everybody, either, neither should always be treated as singular.
(Each, every, anybody, nobody మొదలగు పదాలను ఎల్లప్పుడూ ఏకవచన పదాలుగా పరిగణించాలి)
e.g. : 67. Each of these rooms are well ventilated. (W)
Each of these rooms is well ventilated. (R)

68. Neither John nor Henry are Indians. (W)
Neither John nor Henry is an Indian. (R)

69. Every boy are given a prize. (W)
Every boy is given a prize. (R)

70. Either Sekhar or his brother do the work. (W)
Either Sekhar or his brother does the work. (R)

71. None of these students are here. (W)
None of these students is here. (R)

Rule 36 : Use ‘each other’ for two, ‘one another’ for more than two.
e.g. : 72. The two girls hated one another. (W)
The two girls hated each other. (R)

73. The four thieves accused each other. (W)
The four thieves accused one another. (R)

Common Errors Inter 1st Year English Grammar

(E) USAGE OF ADJECTIVES :

Rule 37 : Double Comparatives or double Superlatives are not used:
e.g. : 74. Sita is more prettier than Kamala. (W)
Sita is prettier than Kamala. (R)

75. Raju is the most tallest boy. (W)
Raju is the tallest boy. (R)

Rule 38 : Comparatives like prefer, preferable ………………… superior, inferior, junior, senior, prior, exterior, interior are followed by ‘to’ but not ‘than’.
eg. : 76. Sarala is junior than Kamala. (W)
Sarala is junior to Kamala. (R)

77. This cloth is inferior than that cloth. (W)
This cloth is inferior to that cloth. (R)

78. Coffee is preferable than tea.(W)
Coffee is preferable to tea. (R)

79. I prefer reading stories than seeing TV. (W)
I prefer reading stories to seeing TV. (R)

Rule 39 : ‘Some’ is used in the affirmative. ‘Any’ is used in the negative.
e.g. : 80. I am hungry, I want any food. (W)
I am hungry, I want some food. (R)

81. The plate does not have some fresh cake. (W)
The plate does not have any fresh cake. (R)

Much is used in case of uncountables. Many is used in case of countables.

82. There are much plans before me. (W)
There are many plans before me. (R)

83. There is many work for me to do. (W)
There is much work for me to do. (R)

Rule 40 : ‘Many’ is followed by plural verb. ‘Manya’ is followed by singular verb.

eg. : 84. Many a passenger are hurt. (W)
Many a passenger is hurt. (R)

85. Many passengers is hurt. (W)
Many passengers are hurt. (R)

Rule 41 : ‘Elder’ means the one above. ‘Older’ means more aged.
eg. : 86. Prakash is my older brother. (W)
Prakash is my elder brother. (R)

87. Prakash is elder than Raghu. (W)
Prakash is older than Raghu. (R)

Rule 42 : Superlative Degree cannot be used when the comparison is only between two.
e.g. : 88. This short story is the best of the two. (W)
This short story is the better of the two. (R)

Rule 43 : Some Adjectives have no degrees of comparison. They are perfect, unique, eternal, round etc.
e.g. : 89. It is the most unique work. (W)
It is unique work. (R)

Rule 44 : In certain comparisons ‘that of’ should be used.
e.g. : 90. The climate of Bangalore is better than Hyderabad. (W)
The climate of Bangalore is better than that of Hyderabad. (R)

Rule 45 : Farther = more distance; further = beyond.
e.g. : 91. He wants to study farther. (W)
He wants to study further. (R)

92. Let us not walk any further. (W)
Let us not walk any farther. (R)

Rule 46 : When ‘both’ is used as an adjective it should be followed by ‘the’.
e.g. : 93. We were present on both days. (W)
We were present on both the days. (R)

Common Errors Inter 1st Year English Grammar

(F) USAGE OF ADVERBS :

e.g. : 94. It is a bitter cold today. (W)
It is a bitterly cold today. (R)

95. She is so rich. (W)
She is very rich. (R)

96. Drinking is quite harmful for health. (W)
Drinking is very harmful for health. (R)

97. He spoke fluent. (W)
He spoke fluently. (R)

98. It is so hot to go out. (W)
It is too hot to go out. (R)

99. He is too weak that he cannot walk. (W)
He is too weak to walk. (R)
(or)
He is so weak that he cannot walk. (R)

100. The boy sat alonely. (W)
The boy sat alone. (R)

101. He comes late often to school. (W)
He often comes late to school. (R)

102. He only married her for her money. (W)
He married her only for her money. (R)

103. Last night you returned lately. (W)
Last night you returned late. (R)

104. He is enough wise to understand the problem. (W)
He is wise enough to understand the problem. (R)

105. I met him three weeks before. (W)
I met him three weeks ago. (R)

106. His daughter is working hardly. (W)
His daughter is working hard. (R)

107. I came directly to my house. (W)
I came direct to my house. (R)

108. She bore cheerfully her miseries. (W)
She bore her miseries cheerfully. (R)

Common Errors Inter 1st Year English Grammar

(G) USAGE OF VERB FORMS :

Rule 47 : Simple Present Tense is used to express a habit.
e.g. : 109. She is drinking milk daily. (W)
She drinks milk daily. (R)

Rule 48 : The Present Perfect Continuous Tense is used with ‘since’ and ‘for’.
e.g. : 110. They are working here for six years. (W)
They have been working here for six years. (R)

111. She is typing from 2 p.m. (W)
She has been typing since 2 p.m. (R)

Rule 49 : Some words like taste, hear, smell, feel, love, like, have, own, belong etc., are not used in the continuous tense form.
e.g. : 112. I am having two Maruthi cars. (W)
I have two Maruthi cars. (R)

113. This house is belonging to Ravi. (W)
This house belongs to Ravi. (R)

114. It is tasting good. (W)
It tastes good. (R)

Rule 50 : Past Tense is used after ‘It is time’ …………………
e.g. : 115. It is time you leave this place. (W)
It is time you left this place. (R)

Rule 51 : Simple Past is used to denote past action.
e.g. : 116. Last year my grandfather had died. (W)
Last year my grandfather died. (R)

Rule 52 : Present Perfect Tense is used to denote actions just completed.
e.g. : 117. The postman just came. (W)
The postman has just come. (R)

118. I just received the telegram. (W)
I have just received the telegram. (R)

Rule 53 : Use Simple Present to denote universal truths.
119. The earth was round. (W)
The earth is round. (R)

120. The sun rose in the east. (W)
The sun rises in the east. (R)

121. Honesty will be the best policy. (W)
Honesty is the best policy. (R)

When two past actions are mentioned, the earlier. (W)
I have just received the telegram. (R)

Rule 54 : When two past actions are mentioned, the earlier action should be in Past Perfect Tense :
(రెండు జరిగిన పనులను తెలిపేటప్పుడు ముందు జరిగిన పనిని Past Perfect Tense లో చెప్పాలి.)
122. The patient died before the doctor arrived. (W)
The patient had died before the doctor arrived.(R)

123. She took her supper before she went to bed. (W)
She had taken her supper before she went to bed. (R)

Rule 55 : Future Tense is not used after some conjunctions like until, when, before, after etc.
124. She will come when she will be ready. (W)
She will come when she is ready. (R)

125. I shall call on you when the doctor will be ready. (W)
I shall call on you when the doctor is ready. (R)

Rule 56 : Don’t use ‘will’ in First Person in questions.
126. Will I get you coffee ? (W)
Shall I get you coffee ? (R)

Rule 57 : ‘Could’ means capacity. ‘Was able’ denotes actual performance.
e.g. : 127. As he was a good batsman, he could score a century. (W)
As he was a good batsman, he was able to score a century. (R)

128. I knew he was able to do it. (W)
I knew he could do it. (R)

Rule 58 : ‘Lay’ means to place. ‘Lie’ means in a resting position.
e.g. : 129. You are tired. Lay here. (W)
You are tired. Lie here. (R)

130. She lies here books on the table. (W)
She lays her books on the table. (R)

Rule 59 : ‘Hanged’ means ‘Caused death’. Hung means ‘to display’.
e.g. : 131. She hanged her saree here. (W)
She hung her saree here. (R)

132. The murderer was hung. (W)
The murderer was hanged. (R)

Rule 60 : ‘Ing’ form is used after certain verbs and phrases like avoid, imagine, enjoy, finish, practise, with a view to, can’t help, look forward to etc.
e.g. : 133. I avoid to speak to her. (W)
I avoid speaking to her. (R)

134. She went to Mysore with a view to see Brindavan Gardens. (W)
She went to Mysore with a view to seeing Brindavan Gardens. (R)

135. She looks forward to help me. (W)
She looks forward to helping me. (R)

Rule 61 : ‘To’ infinitive is used after certain verbs like allow, order, command, wish, request, permit, encourage etc.
e.g. 136. He ordered me wait. (W)
He ordered me to wait. (R)

137. I allowed him read my essay. (W)
I allowed him to read my essay. (R)

Rule 62 : In Interrogative sentences the helping verb is placed before the subject.
e.g. : 138. Where you will go ? (W)
Where will you go ? (R)

Rule 63 : In a phrase like ‘Being a ……………’ it is placed before it.
e.g. : 139. Being a hot day, we stayed indoors. (W)
It being a hot day, we stayed indoors. (R)

Rule 64 : Lest is followed by should :
e.g. : 140. He ran away lest he might be caught. (W)
He ran away lest he should be caught. (R)

Rule 65 : The verb must agree with the subject in all aspects.
e.g. : 141. She wash her clothes. (W)
She washes her clothes. (R)

142. One of my friends have gone to the Andamans. (W)
One of my friends has gone to the Andamans. (R)

Rule 66 : Errors of Proximity:
e.g. : 143. The cost of all things have gone up. (W)
The cost of all things has gone up. (R)

144. The state of affairs are causing anxiety. (W)
The state of affairs is causing anxiety. (R)

Common Errors Inter 1st Year English Grammar

Rule 67 : When the subject is the formal ‘There’, the verb agrees with the real subject that follows it.
e.g. : 145. There has been many difficulties. (W)
There have been many difficulties. (R)

146. There are nothing to fear. (W)
There is nothing to fear. (R)

Rule 68 : When two subjects are connected with ‘not only ……………… but also’ the verb agrees with the latter subject.
e.g. : 147. Not only the master but also his servants is at work. (W)
Not only the master but also his servants are at work. (R)

148. Not only the soldiers but also their captain have been captured. (W)
Not only the soldiers but also their captain has been captured. (R)

Rule 69 : In a sentence when two nouns as subjects refer to the same thing or person, the verb must be singular.
e.g. : 149. Rice and curry are his favourite dish. (W)
Rice and curry is his favourite dish. (R)

150. The poet and dramatist are honoured. (W)
The poet and dramatist is honoured. (R)

Rule 70 : When the subject consists of two nouns or pronouns joined with ‘with’, or ‘as well as’ the verb agrees with the first subject.
(ఒక వాక్యంలో రెండు నామవాచకాలు గాని సర్వనామాలు గాని కర్తలుగా ఉన్నట్లయితే ఆ వాక్యంలోని క్రియ మొదటి కర్త వచనం బట్టి ఉంటుంది)

e.g. : 151. Good students as well as good staff is necessary to show good results. (W)
Good students as well as good staff are necessary to show good results. (R)

152. The Minister with all the guests have arrived. (W)
The Minister with all the guests has arrived. (R)

Exercises

1. Read the following sentences, correct the underlined part of each sentence, and rewrite them correctly. The entire sentence must be written in exams.

Question 1.
Khyati is one of my best friend.
Answer:
Khyati is one of my best friends.

Question 2.
The sceneries of Araku Valiey are beautiful.
Answer:
The scenery of Araku Valley is beautiful.

Question 3.
The news are false.
Answer:
The news is false.

Question 4.
The audience were impressed by the magic show.
Answer:
The audience was impressed by the magic show.

Question 5.
The scissor is are very sharp.
Answer:
The scissors are very sharp.

Question 6.
He has two brother-in-laws.
Answer:
He has two brothers-in-law.

Question 7.
Myself is Gulshan from Kashmir.
Answer:
I am Gulshan from Kashmir.

Question 8.
We should avail the opportunity.
Answer:
We should avail ourselves of the opportunity.

Question 9.
I am loving my country.
Answer:
I love my country.

Question 10.
We have submitted our project an hour ago.
Answer:
We submitted our project an hour ago.

Question 11.
Chitra has a sweet voice, isn’t it ?
Answer:
Chitra has a sweet voice, doesn’t she?

Common Errors Inter 1st Year English Grammar

Question 12.
It’s time you start preparation for the examinations.
Answer:
It’s time you started preparation for the examinations.

Question 13.
Before we reached the theatre, the movie began already.
Answer:
Before we reached the theatre, the movie had already begun.

Question 14.
I was studied in this college.
Answer:
I studied in this college. OR I was a student in this college.

Question 15.
The soldiers along with the major was wounded in the war.
Answer:
The soldiers along with the major were wounded in the war.

Question 16.
The two first chapters of the novel are very boring.
Answer:
The first two chapters of the novel are very boring.

Question 17.
Mihira wore a red Bengal cotton gorgeous sari.
Answer:
Mihira wore a gorgeous red Bengal cotton sari.

Question 18.
Vivek is too intelligent.
Answer:
Vivek is very intelligent.

Question 19.
Teja drives car very fastly.
Answer:
Teja drives car very fast.

Question 20.
He considers her as his guide.
Answer:
He considers her his guide.

Question 21.
He has been reading the novel since three hours.
Answer:
He has been reading the novel for three hours.

Question 22.
I met an European yesterday.
Answer:
I met a European yesterday.

Question 23.
Although he had a fever, but he attended the meeting.
Answer:
Although he had a fever, he attended the meeting.

Common Errors Inter 1st Year English Grammar

Question 24.
This is the most perfect answer to the given question.
Answer:
This is the perfect answer to the given question.

Question 25.
She is the most tallest girl of the class.
Answer:
She is the tallest girl of the class.

Question 26.
This is the best of the two designs.
Answer:
This is the better of the two designs.

Question 27.
The climate of Visakhapatnam is better than Guntur.
Answer:
The climate of Visakhapatnam is better than that of Guntur.

Question 28.
Veeru is junior than Indraneel.
Answer:
Veeru is junior to Indraneel.

Question 29.
He is elder than all other boys in the class.
Answer:
He is older than all other boys in the class.

Question 30.
Teacher’s Day is celebrated on September 5th in India.
Answer:
Teacher’s Day is celebrated on the 5th of September in India.

Question 31.
That was a blunder mistake by him.
Answer:
That was a blunder by him. OR That was a mistake by him.

Question 32.
Ananya returned back from Bangalore.
Answer:
Ananya returned from Bangalore.

Question 33.
I was late why because I had missed the bus.
Answer:
I was late because I had missed the bus.

Question 34.
Meera is good in English.
Answer:
Meera is good at English.

Question 35.
Abhigna listens melodious songs.
Answer:
Abhigna listens to melodious songs.

Question 36.
We watched the film in TV.
Answer:
We watched the film on TV.

Common Errors Inter 1st Year English Grammar

Question 37.
We should pray God.
Answer:
We should pray to God.

Question 38.
The little boy is suffering with fever.
Answer:
The little boy is suffering from fever.

Question 39.
They discussed about films.
Answer:
They discussed films.

Question 40.
We are awaiting for the results.
Answer:
We are awaiting the results.

Question 41.
Videep was elected as general secretary.
Answer:
Videep was elected general secretary.

Question 42.
Vihan is my cousin brother.
Answer:
Vihan is my cousin.

Question 43.
I go to the post office by walk.
Answer:
I go to the post office on foot.

Question 44.
We had better to wake up early.
Answer:
We had better wake up early.

Question 45.
She is running twenty-five.
Answer:
She is twenty-five years old.

Question 46.
The exam has been preponed to tomorrow.
Answer:
The exam has been postponed to tomorrow.

Question 47.
The students should pay their fees to the concerned clerk.
Answer:
The students should pay their fees to the clerk concerned.

Question 48.
Corrupted officers should be punished severely.
Answer:
Corrupt officers should be punished severely.

Question 49.
According to me, there is no short cut to success.
Answer:
In my opinion, there is no short cut to success.

Question 50.
May I know your good name ?
Answer:
May I know your name?

Common Errors Inter 1st Year English Grammar

2. Rewrite the following sentences correcting the underlined part. The entire sentence must be written underlining the corrected part.

Question 1.
The rose is smelling sweet.
Answer:
The rose smells sweet.

Question 2.
Laahiri has seen him long ago.
Answer:
Laahiri saw him long ago.

Question 3.
Mathematics are hard subject.
Answer:
Mathematics is a hard subject.

Question 4.
Hardly he saw the tiger when he ran away.
Answer:
Hardly had he seen the tiger when he ran away.

Question 5.
He entered into the hall late.
Answer:
He entered the hall late.

3. Rewrite the following sentences correcting the underlined part. The entire sentence must be written underlining the corrected part.

Question 1.
Raghu has three brother-in-laws.
Answer:
Raghu has three brothers-in-law.

Question 2.
Her both sons are married.
Answer:
Both her sons are married.

Question 3.
Kittu has finished his homework yesterday.
Answer:
Kittu finished his homework yesterday.

Common Errors Inter 1st Year English Grammar

Question 4.
We discussed about Grammar.
Answer:
We discussed Grammar.

Question 5.
I met an university professor in the meeting.
Answer:
I met a university professor in the meeting.

Units and Measurements Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Physics Chapter 1

Regular practice with AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 1 Units and Measurements Questions and Answers helps students stay prepared for examinations.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics 1st Lesson Units and Measurements Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Pascal is the unit of
(1) power
(2) pressure
(3) potential energy
(4) pressure gradient
Answer:
(2) pressure

Question 2.
When the number 0.046508 is reduced to four significant figures then it becomes
(1) 0.04651
(2) 4650
(3) 4.651
(4) 4.650
Answer:
(1) 0.04651

Question 3.
Which of the following physical quantity has no dimensions?
(1) Angular Velocity
(2) Angular Acceleration
(3) Angular Displacement
(4) Stress
Answer:
(3) Angular Displacement

Question 4.
Mention same dimensions in the dimensional formula of torque and angular momentum.
(1) mass, time
(2) time, length
(3) mass, length
(4) mass
Answer:
(3) mass, length

Question 5.
The velocity of an object varies with time as v = At2 + Bt + C. If v and t are expressed in SI,
what are the units of A, B and C ?
(1) LT-1
(2) LT-2
(3) LT-3
(4) LT4
Answer:
(1) LT-1
V = At2 + Bt + C, From principal of Homogeneity. V = [LT-1]

Question 6.
Which of the following equation is dimensionally correct?
(1) \(\frac{1}{2}\)mV2 = mgh
(2) V = ut + at
(3) s = ut + at3
(4) t = s + uv
Answer:
(1) \(\frac{1}{2}\)mV2 = mgh

Question 7.
The velocity (V) of sound with air pressure (P) and density (d) of air are related as V ∝ Pxdy. The value of x and y are.
(1) 1, 1/2
(2) -1/2, 1/2
(3) 1/2, -1/2
(4) 1/2, 1/2
Answer:
(3) 1/2, -1/2
V = Pxdy → LT-1 = [ML-1T-2]x [ML-3]y.
equality powers of M → x + y = 0 ……….(1), L → 1 = -x – 3y ….(2)
1 = y – 3y ⇒ -2y = 1 ⇒ y = -1/2, x = 1/2

Question 8.
The velocity of a body is given by V = At2 + Bt + C. If V and t are expressed in SI units, then unit of A is
(1) m/s
(2) m/s2
(3) m/s3
(4) ms
Answer:
(3) m/s3
From principle of homogeneity, V = At2 → A = \(\frac{\mathrm{v}}{\mathrm{t}^2}=\frac{\mathrm{LT}^{-1}}{\mathrm{~T}^2}\) = [LT3]

Question 9.
The dimensional formula for product of two physical quantities P and Q is ML2 T-2 and dimensional formula of P/ Q is MT-2 then P is
(1) force
(2) displacement
(3) acceleration
(4) velocity
Answer:
(1) force
P × Q = ML2T-2 ………(1), \(\frac{P}{Q}\) = mT2 …(2)
(1) × (2), P2 M2L2T-2 × MT-2 = M2L2T-4 ⇒ P = MLT-2 = Force.

Question 10.
E, M, L and G denote energy, mass, angular momentum and gravitational constant respectively. Then the dimension of EL2M-5G-2 is
(1) angle
(2) length
(3) mass
(4) time
Answer:
(1) angle

II. Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
Plane angle is the ratio of length of arc to ________.
Answer:
Radius

Units and Measurements Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Physics Chapter 1

Question 2.
The unit of plane angle is ________.
Answer:
Radian

Question 3.
The SI unit of luminous intensity is ______.
Answer:
Candela

Question 4.
The dimensional formula for the coefficient of viscosity is _______.
Answer:
ML-1T-1

Question 5.
The number of significant figures in 0.02308 is _____.
Answer:
4

Question 6.
If F, M and T are the force, mass and time, then FM-1T2 denotes _____.
Answer:
Length
FM-1T2 = MLT-2 M-1T2 = [L]

Question 7.
A number 2.735 is rounded off to three significant figures is _______.
Answer:
2.74

Question 8.
Planck’s constant and ______ have same dimensions.
Answer:
angular momentum

Question 9.
The dimensional formula of angular impulse is ________.
Answer:
ML2T-1

Question 10.
A force is represented by F = Ax2 + Bt2, where x = distance and t = time then the dimensions of ‘A’ ________.
Answer:
ML-1T2
Principle of Homogeneity:
F = Ax2 ⇒ A = \(\frac{\mathrm{F}}{\mathrm{x}^2}=\frac{\mathrm{MLT}^{-2}}{\mathrm{~L}^2}\), A = [ML-1T-2]

III. One Word Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is fundamental physical quantity?
Answer:
Fundamental Quantity : A fundamental quantity is one which is unique and freely existing. It does not depend on any other physical quantity.
Ex : Length (L), Time (T), Mass (M) etc.

Question 2.
What is derived physical quantity?
Answer:
Derived quantity: A derived quantity is produced by the combination of fundamental quanti¬ties (i.e., by division or by multiplication of fundamental quantities).
Ex: Velocity = \(\frac{\text { displacement }}{\text { time }}=\frac{\mathrm{L}}{\mathrm{~T}}\) or LT-1
Acceleration = \(\frac{\text { change in velocity }}{\text { time }}=\frac{\mathrm{LT}^{-1}}{\mathrm{~T}}\) = LT-2 etc.

Question 3.
What is the SI unit of solid angle?
Answer:
Steradian (SI)

Question 4.
Write any one physical constant that is having dimensions.
Answer:
Planck’s constant (D.F : M1 L2 T-1), Gravitational Constant (G) : M-1L3T-2

Question 5.
Which physical quantity has negative dimensions in mass?
Answer:
Universal Gravitational Constant (G) = [M-1 L3 T-2]

Question 6.
Which physical quantity is represented by gR, where R is the radius of the Earth?
Answer:
\(\sqrt{\mathrm{gR}}=\sqrt{\mathrm{LT}^{-2} \times \mathrm{L}}\) = [LT-1 ] = Velocity

Question 7.
Which physical quantity is represented by PV, where P is pressure and V is volume?
Answer:
PV = M1L1T-2 × L3 = [ML2T-2] = Work

Question 8.
Name atleast one physical quantity whose SI unit is Nm .
Answer:
Pressure = force/area \(\frac{\mathrm{MLT}^{-2}}{\mathrm{~L}^2}\)
= [M1L1T-2]; Nm-2 (or) Pascal

IV. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are significant figures and what do they represent when reporting the result of a measurement ?
Answer:
Significant figures represent all practically measured digits plus one uncertain digit at the end. When a result is reported in this way we can know up to what extent the value is reliable and also the amount of uncertainty in that reported value.

Question 2.
Distinguish between fundamental units and derived units.
Answer:
The units of fundamental physical quantities are called fundamental units.
Ex : Kg, m, sec, etc.,
The units of derived physical quantities are called derived units.
Ex: m/sec, J, m/sec2 etc.

Question 3.
What are the two fundamental physical quantities used to measure angle ?
Answer:
Plane angle (θ) = Radian.
Solid angle (ω) = Steradian.

Question 4.
Why do we have different units for the same physical quantity ?
Answer:
To measure the same physical quantity we use different units because sometimes the magnitude of the measured quantity value may be very big or very small.
Ex:
1. To measure astronomical distances, we will use light year.
1 light year = 9.468 × 1015m.
2. To measure atomic distances, we will use Angstrom A (or) Fermi.

Units and Measurements Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Physics Chapter 1

Question 5.
Define plane angle.
Answer:
Plane angle is the ratio of length of arc ‘dS’ to the radius “r”.
Units and Measurements Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Physics Chapter 1-1

Question 6.
What is meant by dimension of a physical quantity?
Answer:
Dimension : The power of a fundamental quantity in the given derived quantity is called dimension.
Ex : Force dimensional formula MLT-2.
Here dimensions of Mass → 1, Length → 1, Time → 2.

Question 7.
What is meant by dimensional formula?
Answer:
Dimensional formula : It is a mathematical expression giving relation between various funda-mental quantities of a derived physical quantity.
Ex : Momentum (\(\overline{\mathrm{P}}\)) MLT-1, Energy (E) ML2T-2 etc.

Question 8.
Write the physical quantities that are having J m-1 and J m-2 as their units.
Answer:
Force and Surface Tension.

V. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
In a system of units, the unit of force is 100N, unit of length is 10m and the unit of time is 100s. What is the unit of mass in this system ?
Answer:
Here, F = MLT-2 = 100 N → (1) ; L = 10 m ; T = 100s
∴ From equation (1)
M × (10) × (100)-2 = 100 ⇒ M × 10-3 = 100 ⇒ M = \(\frac{100}{10^{-3}}\) ⇒ M = 105 kg.

Question 2.
1 calorie = 4.2 J where 1J = 1 kg m2 s-2. Suppose we employ a system of units in which the unit of mass is α kg, the unit of length is β in and the unit of time γs, show that a calorie has a magnitude 4.2 α-1 β-2 γ2 term of new units.
Answer:
Here, 1 calorie = 4.2 J = 4.2 kg m2 / s2 → (1)
As new unit of mass = α kg
∴ 1 kg = \(\frac{1}{\alpha}\) new unit of mass ⇒ α-1 new unit of mass
Similarly lm = β-1new unit of length and Is = γ-1 new unit of time
Putting these values in (1) we get
1 calorie = 4.2 (α-1 new unit of mass) (β-1 new unit of length)2 (γ-1 new unit of time)-2
= 4.2 α-1β-2γ2 new unit of energy, which was proved.

Question 3.
The velocity of a body is given by v = At2 + Bt + C. If v and t are expressed in SI, what are the units of A, B and C ?
Answer:
From principle of Homogeneity the terms At2, Bt and C must have same dimensional formula of velocity ‘v’.
v = Velocity = LT-1 ⇒ LT-1 = A [ T2 ]
∴ A = \(\frac{\mathrm{LT}^{-1}}{\mathrm{~T}^2}\) = LT-3. So unit of A is m/sec3
LT-1 = BT ⇒ B = LT-2 So unit of B is m/sec2
LT-1 = C So unit of C is m/sec.

Question 4.
What are fundamental quantities? State their units in SI system.
Answer:
(i) Fundamental unit: The units of the fundamental quantities are called the “fundamental units”.
Ex : Length → Meter (m), Mass → Kilogram (kg), Time → Second (s) etc.
Basic units or fundamental units of SI system :

Type of Unit Fundamental UnitsQuantityUnitSymbol
1.LengthMetrem
2.Masskilogramkg
3.Timeseconds
4.Electric currentAmpereA
5.Thermodynamic temperatureKelvinK
6.Luminous intensity of a sourcecandelacd
7.Amount of a substancemolemol
Supplementary UnitsAngle Solid Angleradian steradianrad sr

Question 5.
Explain the uses of Dimensional methods with examples.
Answer:
Uses of dimensional methods :

  1. To convert units from one system to another system.
  2. To check the validity of given physical equations. For this purpose, we will use homogeneity of dimensions on L.H.S and on R.H.S.
  3. To derive new relations between various physical quantities.

Question 6.
What are the rules for arithmetic operations with significant figures ?
Answer:
Rules for arithmetic operations with significant figures
1. In multiplication or division, the final result should retain as many significant figures as there in the original number with the least significant figures.
Ex: In the division \(\frac{4.237}{2.51}\) the significant figures are 4 and 3, so least significant figures are ‘3’.
∴ \(\frac{4.237}{2.51}\) = 1.69 i.e., final answer must have only ‘3’ significant digits.

2. In addition or subtraction, the final result should retain as many decimal places are there in the number with the least decimal places.
Ex : 436.26g + 227.2 g Here least number of significant figures after decimal point is one.
∴ 436.26 + 272.2 = 708.46 must be expressed as 708.5 (after rounding off the last digit).

Question 7.
What is the rounding off a number and what are the rules to be followed in it?
Answer:
Rounding off the uncertain digits
Rules for rounding off procedure : In rounding off the numbers to the required number of significant digits the following rules are followed.

  1. The preceding significant digit is raised by one if the first non-significant digit is more than 5.
  2. The preceding significant digit is left unchanged if the first non-significant digit is less than 5.
  3. If the first non-significant figure is 5, then
    • If the preceding significant figure is an odd number, then add one to it.
    • If the preceding significant figure is an even number, then it is unchanged and 5 is discarded.

Problems

Question 1.
If the velocity of light (c). Planck’s constant (h) and the gravitational constant (G) are taken as fundamental quantities; then express mass, length and time in terms of dimensions of these quantities.
Solution:
Here, c = [L T-1] ; h = [M L2T-1] ; G = [M-1L3T-2]
∴ E = hv, h = \(\frac{\mathrm{E}}{v}\) ; G = \(\left(\frac{\mathrm{Fd}^2}{\mathrm{~m}_1 \mathrm{~m}_2}\right)\)
Let mass (M) = cxhyGz → (1)
⇒ [M1L0T0]=(LT-1 )x (M L2T-1)y (M-1L3T-2 )z
⇒ [M1L0T0] = My-zLx+2y+3zT-x-y-2z
Applying the principle of homogeneity of dimensions, we get
y – z = 1 → (2) ; x + 2y + 3z = 0 → (3) ; – x – y – 2z = 0 → (4)
Adding eq. (2), eq. (3) and eq. (4),
∴ From eq. (2) z = y – 1 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) – 1 = \(\frac{-1}{2}\), From eq. (4) x = -y – 2z = \(\frac{-1}{2}\) + 1 = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
Substituting the values of x, y & z in eq. (1), we get ⇒ M = c1/2 h1/2 G1/2 ⇒ M = \(\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{ch}}{\mathrm{G}}}\)
Proceeding as above we can show that L = \(\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{hG}}{\mathrm{c}^3}} \text { and } \mathrm{T}=\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{hG}}{\mathrm{c}^5}}\)

Question 2.
An artificial satellite is revolving around a planet of mass M and radius R. in a circular orbit of radius r. Using dimensional analysis show that the period of the satellite“where k is a dimensionless constant and g is acceleration due to gravity.
Solution:
Given that, T2 ∝ r3 or T ∝ r3/2. Also T is a function of g and R.
Let T ∝ r3/2 ga Rb where a, b are the dimensions of g and R. (or) T = k r3/2 ga Rb → (1)
where k is a dimensionless constant of proportionality
From equation (1) [M0L0T1] = L3/2 (LT-2)a (L)b = M0La+b+\(\frac{3}{2}\)T-2a Applying the principle of homogeneity of dimensions, we get
a + b + \(\frac{3}{2}\) = 0 → (2)
∴ -2a = 1 ⇒ a = \(\frac{-1}{2}\)
From eq (1), \(\frac{-1}{2}\) + b + \(\frac{3}{2}\) = 0 ⇒ b = -1
Substituting the values of ‘a’ and ‘b’ in eq. (1), we get
∴ T = k r3/2 g-1/2 R-1 = \(\frac{k}{R} \sqrt{\frac{r^3}{g}}\) This is the required relation.

Question 3.
State the number of significant figures in the following.
a) 6729
b) 0.024
c) 0.08240
d) 6.032
Solution:
a) In 6729 all are significant figures.
∴ Number of significant figures are Four.

b) In 0.024 the zeros to the left of 1st non-zero digit of a number less than one are not significant.
∴ Number of significant figures are Two.

c) 0.08240 – Significant figures are Four.

d) In 6.032 the zero between two non-zero digits is significant.
So, number of significant figures in 6.032 are 4.

e) 4.57 × 108– Significant figures are Three.
[In the representation of powers of Ten our rule is only significant figures must be given].

Question 4.
A stick has a length of 12.132 cm and another has a length of 12.4 cm. (a) If the two sticks are placed end to end what is the total length ? (b)If the two sticks are placed side by side, what is the difference in their lengths?
Solution:
a) When placed end to end total length is l = l1 + l2
Units and Measurements Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Physics Chapter 1-2
l1 = 12.132 cm and l2 = 12.4 cm.
∴ l1 + l2 = 12.132 + 12.4 = 24.532 cm.
In addition final answer must have least number of significant numbers in that addition, i.e., one after decimal point. So our answer is 24.5 cm.

b) For difference use, l1 – l2 ⇒ 12.4 – 12.132 = 0.268 cm.
In subtraction, final answer must be adjusted to least number of significant figures in that operation.
Here least number is one digit after decimal. By applying round off procedure our answer is 0.3 cm.

Question 5.
Each side of a cube is measured to be 7.203 m. What is
(i) the total surface area and
(ii) the volume of the cube, to appropriate significant figures ?
Solution:
Side of cube, a = 7.203 m.
So number of significant figures are Four.
i) Surface area of a cube = 6a2 = 6 × 7.203 × 7.203 = 311.299
But our final answer must be rounded to least number of significant figures is four digits.
So surface area of a cube = 311.3 m2

ii) Volume of a cube, .
V = a3 = (7.203)3 = 373.147
But the answer must be limited to Four significant figures.
∴ Volume of a cube, V = 373.1 m3.

Units and Measurements Class 11 NCERT Solutions

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks.
(a) The volume of a cube of side 1 cm is equal to m3.
(b) The surface area of a solid cylinder of radius 2.0 cm and height 10.0 cm is equal to ________ (mm)2.
(c) A vehicle moving with a speed of 18 km h-1 covers ______ m in 1 s.
(d) If the relative density of lead is 11.3. Its density is _________ g cm-3 or _______ kg m-3.
Answer:
(a) Volume of a cube = l3
1 cm = 10-2 m
Side of a cube, l = 1 cm = 10-2 m
Volume of a cube of side ‘l’ is V = l3 = (10-2)3 = 10-6 m3.

(b) Surface area of a solid cylinder of radius r and length l is A = 2πrl + 2πr2
Here, r = 2.0 cm, l = 10 cm ; As 1 cm = 10 mm; r = 2.0 × 10 mm = 20 mm
l = 10.0 × 10 mm = 100 mm
A = 2πrl + 2πr2 = 2πr (l + r)
= 2 × 3.14 × 20(100 + 20) = 125.6 (120) = 15072 mm2 = 1.5 x 104 mm2 .

(c) Distance = Velocity × Time ⇒ 1 km/h = \(\frac{1000}{3600}\) m/s = \(\frac{5}{18}\)m/s.
Given velocity of vehicle, v = 18 km/h = 18 × \(\frac{5}{18}\) m/s = 5 m/s.
Distance traversed = velocity × time = 5 × 1 = 5 m.

(d) Units and Measurements Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Physics Chapter 1-3
Density, (p) = Relative Density × Density of water = 11.3 × 1 g cm-3 = 11.3 g cm-3
But 1 g cm-3 = 1000 kg m-3; p = 11.3 × 1000 kg/m3 = 1.13 × 104 kgm-3.

Units and Measurements Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Physics Chapter 1

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks by suitable conversion of units.
(a) 1 kg m2 s-2 = g cm2 s-2.
(b) 1 m = _______ light years.
(c) 3 ms-2 = _________ km h-2.
(d) G = 6.67 × 10-11 Nm2kg-2 = g-1 cm3 s-2.
Ans .
(a) 1 kg = 1000 g, 1 m = 100 cm
1 kg m2 s-2 = 1000 g (100 cm)2 s-2 = 107 g cm2s-2
1 kg m2 s-2 = 107 g cm2 s-2

(b) 1 light year = 9.46 × 1015 m
1m = \(\frac{1}{9.46 \times 10^{15}}\) light year = 1.057 × 10-16 light year.

(c) 1 km = 1000m ⇒ 1 m = \(\frac{1}{1000}\)km
1 h = 3600s ⇒ 1s = \(\frac{1}{3600}\) h
3 ms-2 = 3 × \(\left(\frac{1}{1000} \mathrm{~km}\right) \times\left(\frac{1}{3600} \mathrm{~h}\right)^{-2}=3 \times \frac{1}{1000} \times(3600)^2 \mathrm{~km} \mathrm{~h}^{-2}\)
= 3.888 × 104 km h-2.

(d) 1 N = 1 kg ms-2
G = 6.67 × 10-11 Nm2 kg-2
= 6.67 × 10-11(kg ms-2) m2kg-2
= 6.67 × 10-11kg-1 m3 s-2
= 6.67 × 10-11 × \(\frac{1}{1000}\) × (10)6 g-1 cm3s-2 = 6.67 × 10-8 g-1 cm3 s-2

Question 3.
A calorie is a unit of heat (energy in transit) and it equals about 4.2 J, where 1 J = 1 kg m2 s-2. Suppose we employ a system of units in which the unit of mass equals α kg, the unit of length equals β m and the unit of time is γ s. Show that a calorie has a magnitude 4.2 α-1 β-2 γ2 in terms of new units.
Answer:
Dimension of energy are [ML2T-2]
n1[u1] = m2[u2]
n1[M1L12T1-2] = n2[M2L22T2-2] ………(i)
In SI system, n1 = 4.2 J, M1 = 1 kg, L1 = 1 m, T1 = 1 s
In new system, M2 = α kg, L2 = β m, T2 = γ s
So equation (i), gives
n2 = n1 \(\left(\frac{\mathrm{M}_1}{\mathrm{M}_2}\right) \cdot\left(\frac{\mathrm{L}_1}{\mathrm{~L}_2}\right)^2 \cdot\left(\frac{\mathrm{~T}_1}{\mathrm{~T}_2}\right)^{-2}\) = 4.2 \(\left(\frac{1 \mathrm{~kg}}{\alpha \mathrm{~kg}}\right) \cdot\left(\frac{1 \mathrm{~m}}{\beta \mathrm{~m}}\right)^2 \cdot\left(\frac{1 \mathrm{~s}}{\gamma \mathrm{~s}}\right)^{-2}\) = 4.2 α-1 β-2 γ2
i.e., 1 calorie = 4.23 J = 4.2 α-1 β-2 γ2.

Question 4.
Explain this statement clearly :
“To call a dimensional quantity ‘large’ or ‘small’ is meaningless without specifying a standard for comparison”. In view of this, reframe the following statements wherever necessary.
(a) atoms are very small objects.
(b) a jet plane moves with great speed.
(c) the mass of Jupiter is very large.
(d) the air inside this room contains a large number of molecules.
(e) a proton is much more massive than an electron.
(f) the speed of sound is much smaller than the speed of light.
Answer:
The statement is true; it is meaningless to say that Meerut is a big city because it is bigger as compared to Bijnor and smaller as compared to Calcutta. Hence, to call a dimensionless quantity larger or small it is essential to specify a standard for comparison.
(a) Atoms are very small objects as compared to edge of a sharp blade.
(b) The jet plane moves with greater speed than that of a superfast train.
(c) The mass of Jupiter is very large as compared to that of the Earth.
(d) The air inside a room contains more number of molecules than the Avogadro number.

(e) Mass of proton = 1.67 × 10-27 kg; Mass of electron = 9.1 × 10-31 kg
\(\frac{\text { Mass of proton }}{\text { Mass of electron }}=\frac{1.67 \times 10^{-27} \mathrm{~kg}}{9.1 \times 10^{-31} \mathrm{~kg}} \approx 1836 .\)
Hence, the given statement is correct.

(f) Speed of sound in air, v = 332 m/s; Speed of light, c = 3 × 108 m/s
\(\frac{v}{c}=\frac{332}{3 \times 10^8} \approx 10^{-6}\)
Hence, the statement is correct.

Question 5.
A new unit of length is chosen such that the speed of light in vacuum is unity. What
is the distance between the Sun and the Earth in terms of the new unit of light takes 8 min and 20 s to cover this distance ?
Answer:
Given, c = 1 un s-1 where un is new unit
Time, t = 8 min 20 s = 8 × 60 + 20 = 500 s
Distance between the Sun and the Earth
x = ct = 1 un s-1 × 500 un = 500 new unit of length.

Question 6.
Which of the following is the most precise device for measuring length ?
(a) a vernier callipers with 20 divisions on the sliding scale.
(b) a screw gauge of pitch 1 mm and 100 divisions on the circular scale.
(c) an optical instrument that can measure length to within a wavelength of light ?
Answer:
The most precise measurement is that in which least count of the measuring instrument is minimum.
(a) Least count of Vernier callipers = \(\frac{s}{n}=\frac{\text { Value of one part of main scale }(s)}{\text { Number of divisions on Vernier scale }}\)
= \(\frac{0.1 \mathrm{~cm}}{20}=\frac{1}{200} \mathrm{~cm}\) = 0.005 cm

(b) Least count of screw guage \(=\frac{\text { Pitch }}{\text { Number of divisions on circular scale }}\)
= \(\frac{1 \mathrm{~mm}}{100}\) = 0.01 mm = 0.001 cm

(c) Least count of optical instrument = Wavelength of visible light = 5 × 10-7 m
Clearly, the least count of optical instrument is minimum, hence optical instrument is more precise device for measuring length.

Question 7.
A student measures the thickness of a human hair by looking at it through a microscope magnification 100. He makes 20 observations and finds that the average width of the hair in the field of view of the microscope 3.5 mm. What is the estimate on the thickness of hair?
Answer:
Magnification of microscope, m = \(\frac{\text { Size of image (I) }}{\text { Size of object (O) }}\)
The thickness of hair will contain two significant figures as given in average width
∴ Size of object, O = \(\frac{\text { Size of image (I) }}{\text { Magnification (m) }}\)
Given magnification = 100, size of image = 3.5 mm
∴ Size of object = \(\frac{3.5}{100}\)mm = 0.035 mm = 35 pm (two significant figures)
That is, average thickness of human hair = 35 µm.

Question 8.
Answer the following.
(a) You are given a thread and a metre scale. How will you estimate the diameter of the thread ?
(b) A screw gauge has a pitch of 1.0 mm and 200 divisions on the circular scale. Do you think it is possible to increase the accuracy of the screw gauge arbitrarily by increasing the number of divisions on the circular scale ?
(c) The mean diameter of a thick brass rod is to be measured by vernier callipers. Why is a set of 100 measurements of the diameter expected to yield a more reliable estimate that a set of 5 measurements only ?
Answer:
(a) The diameter of thread is so small that it cannot be measured directly by a metre scale. For this, we measure the length of the thread by metre scale; fold the thread along its length repeatedly for a known number of times and place all the lengths fold touching one another. The thickness is measured by the metre scale. The diameter of thread will be equal to the fold thickness divided by the number of folds.

(b) Least count of screw gauge = \(=\frac{\text { Pitch }(\mathrm{P})}{\text { Number of divisions on circular scale }(\mathrm{N})}\)
Obviously, by increasing the number of divisions on a circular scale, the least count would decrease and hence, accuracy will increase. But it can be done arbitrarily due to low resolution of the eye. Hence the number of turns on the circular scale may be increased upto a certain limit.

(c) The accuracy of a measurement increases with the increase in number of observations; so a set of 100 measurements will give more accurate results then a set of 5 measurements.
Analytically accuracy ∝ \(\sqrt{N}\)
where N is the number of measurements.

Question 9.
The photograph of a house occupies an area of 1.75 cm2 on a 35 mm slide. The slide is projected onto a screen and the area of house on the screen is 1.55 m2. What is the linear magnification of the projector-screen arrangement ?
Answer:
Significant figures in given areas in an object and image is 3, number of significant figures
in magnifications must be 3.
Area of house on the slide = 1.75 cm2 = 1.75 × 10-4 m2
Area of house projected on the screen = 1.55 m2
Areal magnification = \(\frac{\text { Area of image (of house) }}{\text { Area of an object (house) }}=\frac{1.55}{1.75 \times 10^{-4}}=0.8857 \times 10^4\)
Linear magnification, m = \(\sqrt{\text { Areal magnification }}=\sqrt{0.8857 \times 10^4}=94.1\)
∴ m = 94.1 (three significant figures).

Question 10.
State the number of significant figures in the following.
(a) 0.007 m2
(b) 2.64 × 1024 kg
(c) 0.2370 g cm-3
(d) 6.320 J
(e) 6.032 Nm-2
(f) 0.0006032 m2
Answer:
(a) The number of significant figures in the measurement 0.007 m2 is 1 (zeros on left are not counted).
(b) The number of significant figures in the measurement 2.64 × 1024 kg is 3 (powers of 10 are not counted).
(c) The number of significant figures in 0.2370 g cm-3 is 4 (zeros on right having a decimal place are counted).
(d) The number of significant figures in 6.320 J is 4.
(e) The number of significant figures in 6.032 Nm-2 is 4.
(f) The number of significant figures in 0.0006032 is 4 (zeros on left are not counted).

Question 11.
The length, breadth and thickness of a rectangular metallic sheet are 4.234 m, 1.005m and 2.01 cm respectively, Give the area and volume of the sheet to correct significant figures.
Answer:
Given, length, l = 4.234 (4 significant figures)
breadth, b = 1.005 m (4 significant figures)
thickness, t = 2.01 cm = 2.01 × 10-2 m (3 significant figures)
A rectangular sheet has six faces, out of which parallel faces have equal areAnswer:
Area of sheet, A = 2 (lb + bt + lt)
= 2(4.234 × 1.005 + 1.005 × 2.01 × 10-2 + 4.234 × 2.01 × 10-2)
= 2(4.25517 + 0.0202005 + 0.0851034)
= 2 (4.3604739) = 8.7209478 m2
According to an idea of significant figures, there should be three significant figures in area; so Area of sheet, A = 8.72 m2.
Volume, V = lbt = 4.234 × 1.005 × 2.01 × 10-2 = 8.5528917 × 10-2 m3
According to idea of significant figures, there should be 3 significant figures in volume.
∴ Volume, V = 8.55 × 10-2 m3

Question 12.
The mass of a box measured by a grocer’s balance is 2.30 kg. Two gold pieces of masses 20.15 g and 20.17 g are added to the box, what is
(a) Total mass of the box,
(b) The difference in the masses of the pieces of correct significant figures ?
Answer:
Mass of empty box, m0 = 2.30 kg (two decimal places)
If m1 and m2 are masses of pieces, then
m1 = 20.15 g = 20.15 × 10-3 kg = 0.02015 kg (5 decimal places)
m2 = 20.17 g = 20.17 × 10-3 kg = 0.02017 kg (5 decimal places)

(a) Total mass, M = m0 + m1 + m2 = 2.30 + 0.02015 + 0.02017 = 2.34032 kg.
In the sum, the result must contain minimum number of decimal places. In the first measurement there are two decimal places, therefore, only two figures after the decimal point is retained.
Total mass, M = 2.34 kg (upto 1 decimal place)

(b) Difference of masses = m2 – m1
= 20.17 g – 20.15 g (Each has two decimal places)
= 0.02 g (Two decimal places)

Question 13.
A famous relation in physics relates ‘moving mass’ m to the ‘rest mass’ m0 of a particle terms of its speed v and the speed of light c. (This relation first arose as a consequence special relativity due to Albert Einstein). A boy recalls the relation almost correctly but forgets where to put the constant c. He writes : m = \(\frac{m_0}{\left(1-v^2\right)^{1 / 2}}\)
Guess where to put the missing c.
Answer:
Given relation is m = \(\frac{m_0}{\left(1-v^2\right)^{1 / 2}}\)
From the principle of homogeneity, the dimensions of two sides must be equal. For (1 – v2)1/2 should be dimensionless. As v and c both are velocities, therefore for (1 – v2)1/2 to dimensionless, v must be replaced by \(\frac{\mathrm{v}}{\mathrm{c}}\), i.e.,

Question 14.
The unit of length convenient on the atomic scale is known as an angstrom and is denoted by A0. 1 A0 = 10-10 m. The size of the hydrogen atom is about 0.5 A0. What is the total atomic volume in m3 of a mole of the hydrogen atoms ?
Answer:
Volume of a spherical hydrogen atom is \(\frac{4}{3}\)πR3. The number of significant figures in volume must be 1 as given in size.
Radius (size) of the hydrogen atom, R = 0.5 A = 0.5 × 10-10 m,.
Volume of the hydrogen atom = \(\frac{4}{3}\)πR3
= \(\frac{4}{3}\) × 3.14 × (0.5 × 10-10 m)3
= 5.233 × 10-31 m3
Number of hydrogen atoms in 1 mole of hydrogen = Avogadro number = 6.023 × 1023 Volume of atoms in mole of hydrogen = 6.023 × 1023 × 5.233 × 10-31 = 3.15 × 10-7 m3 As given, size of H – atom contains 1 significant figure, so volume must contain 1 significant figure; therefore, volume of H – atom = 3 × 10-7 m3.

Question 15.
One mole of an ideal gas at standard temperature and pressure occupies 22.4 L (molar volume). What is the ratio of molar volume to the atomic volume of a mole of hydrogen ? (Take the size of hydrogen molecule to be about 1Å). Why is this ratio so large ?
Answer:
Molar volume, V = 22.4 litres ⇒ Molar volume, Vmolar = 22.4 × 10-3 m3
molar
Size of hydrogen molecule, r = 1 Å = 10-10 m
Volume of one hydrogen molecule, V = \(\frac{4}{3}\)πr3
= \(\frac{4}{3}\) × 3.14 × (10-10)3
= 4.2 × 10-30m3
Atomic volume of a mole of hydrogen,
vatomic = Volume of one molecule × Avogadro Number
= 4.2 × 10-30 × 6.02 × 1023 ≈ 25 × 10-7 m3
\(\frac{\text { Molar Volume }}{\text { Atomic Volume }}=\frac{22.4 \times 10^{-3}}{25 \times 10^{-7}}\) ≈ 104
This means that the intermolecular separation in hydrogen at S.T.P. is much larger than the size of a molecule.

Units and Measurements Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Physics Chapter 1

Question 16.
Explain this common observation clearly : If you look out of the window of a fast moving train, the nearby trees, houses etc. seem to move rapidly in a direction opposite to the train’s motion, but the distant objects (hill tops, Moon, the stars etc.) seem to be stationary. (In fact, since you are aware that you are moving, these distant objects seem to move with you).
Answer:
The line joining the object to the eye is called the line of sight. When a train moves fast, the angular change in line of sight of nearby objects (e.g., tree, house), is large, therefore, the nearby objects appear to move in the opposite direction. On the other hand the angular change in line of sight of distant objects (e.g., hill tops, moon, etc.) is negligibly small, hence, distant objects appear stationary.

Question 17.
The Sun is a hot plasma (ionized matter) with its inner core at a temperature exceeding 107 K, and its outer surface at a temperature of about 6000 K. At these high temperatures, no substance remains in a solid or liquid phase. In what range do you expect the mass density of the Sun to be, in the range of densities of solids and liquids or gases ? Check if your guess is correct from the following data : mass of the Sun = 2.0 × 1030 kg, radius of the Sun = 7.0 × 108 m.
Answer:
At high temperatures no substance can remain in solid or liquid phase. Therefore, at a first thought it is expected that the density of sun plasma should be in the range of gases.
Given, mass of Sun, M = 2.0 × 1030 kg ; Radius of Sun, R = 7.0 × 108 m
Density = \(\frac{\text { Mass }}{\text { Volume }}\)
= \(\frac{\mathrm{M}}{\frac{4}{3} \pi \mathrm{R}^3}=\frac{3 \mathrm{M}}{4 \pi \mathrm{R}^3}\)
= \(\frac{3 \times 2.0 \times 10^{30}}{4 \times 3.14 \times\left(7 \times 10^8\right)^3}=1.39 \times 10^3 \mathrm{~kg} / \mathrm{m}^3\)
This is the order of density of solids and liquids and not of gases. The reason is that the ionised particles in the Sun are very close to one another as in the case of solids and liquids due to enormous gravitational attraction.

Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 3

Regular practice with AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Study Material Chapter 3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Questions and Answers helps students stay prepared for examinations.

AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry 3rd Lesson Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which of the following oxide, when dissolved in water form an acidic solution?
1) Na2O
2) CO
3) Al2O3
4) Cl2O7
Answer:
4) Cl2O7
Cl2O7 + H2O → 2HClO4 (Cl2O7 is acidic oxide)

Question 2.
The maximum covalency of Be in [BeF4]– and Al in [AlF6]3- are respectively?
1) 4, 6
2) 4, 4
3) 6, 4
4) 6, 6
Answer:
1) 4, 6
Maximum covalency of Be in [BeF4]– = 4
Maximum covalency of Al in [AlF6]-3 = 6
No.of Chemical bonds formed by an atom by sharing electrons with other atoms is covalency.

Question 3.
The increasing order of ionization enthalpy of second period elements is
1) Li < B < Be < C < NO < F < Ne
2) Li < Be < B < C < N < O < F < Ne
3) Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne
4) Li < Be < B < C < O < N < F < Ne
Answer:
3) Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne

Question 4.
The difference in electronegativities of elements give information regarding
1) bond length
2) nature of bond
3) volume of anion
4) volume of cation
Answer:
2) nature of bond Difference in electronegative values Of elements give information about nature of bond. Electronegativity difference > 1.7 (ionic bond) < 1.7 (covalent bond)
= 1.7 (50% covalent bond and 50% ionic bond)

Question 5.
The atomic radius of fluorine is 64 pm. What is the ionic radius of fluoride ion ?
1) 64 pm
2) 136 pm
3) 32 pm
4) 60 pm
Answer:
2) 136 pm
F- has higher radius than F (Parent atom) so 136 pm

Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 3

Question 6.
The atomic number Of the element unnilennium is
1) 102
2) 108
3) 119
4) 109
Answer:
4) 109
Unnilennium
un – 1
nil – 0
enn – 9

Question 7.
Which one of the following sets of ions represents a collection of iso electronic series?
1) Li+, Na+, Mg2+, Ca2+
2) Ba2+, Sr2+, K+, Ca2+
3) N3-, O2-, F–, S2-
4) K+, Cl–, Ca2+, Sc3+
Answer:
4) K+, Cl–, Ca2+, Sc3+
K+ (18), Cl– (18), Ca+2 (18) and Sc+3 (18) have some no.of electrons so they are iso electronic series.

Question 8.
Three elements X, Y and Z are in the third period of the periodic table. The oxides of X,Y and Z respectively are basic, amphoteric and acidic. The correct order of the atomic numbers of X,Y and Z is [ 3 ]
1) X < Z < Y
2) Z < Y < X
3) X < Y < Z
4) Y<X<Z
Answer:
3) X < Y < Z
X – basic ; Y – Amphoteric ; Z – acidic ; X < Y < Z.

Question 9.
In which of the following, elements are arranged in the decreasing order of their metallic nature?
1) Na > Mg > Be > Si > P
2) P > Si > Be > Mg > Na
3) Si > P > Be > Na > Mg
4) Be > Na > Mg > Si > P
Answer:
1) Na > Mg > Be > Si > P
Na > Mg > Be > Si > P is the decreasing order of metallic nature.

Question 10.
What is the atomic number of the element present in the 4th period and 17th group of the periodic table?
1) 29
2) 35
3) 37
4) 30
Answer:
2) 35
4th period and 17th group element is Bromine. Atomic no is 35.

Question 11.
If the formula of oxide of Eka-aluminium is E2O3, its chloride can be
1)AlCl3
2) GaCl3
3) GeCl3
4) Ga2Cl3
Answer:
2) GaCl3
Eka Aluminium is gallium, chloride is Gallium trichloride GaCl3.

Question 12.
To which group of an element having atomic number 84.
1) Group-12
2) Group-17
3) Group-16
4) Group-11
Answer:
3) Group-16
Atomic no(Z) = 84 having Element is polonium. Polonium is belongs to group – 16

Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 3

Question 13.
As we move from left to right across a period, the non-metallic character and as we go down in the group, metallic character
1) Increases, Decreases
2) Decreases, Increases
3) Decreases, Increases
4) Increases, Increases
Answer:
4) Increases, Increases
In periods, non-metallic character from left to right increases.
In groups, metallic character from top to bottom increases.

Question 14.
The IUPAC official name of unnilquadium
1) Seaborgium
2) Lawrencium
3) Dubnium
4) Rutherfordium
Answer:
4) Rutherfordium
Unnilquadium Atomic no = 104
104th Element is Rutherfordium (Rf).

II. Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
Among the alkali metals, the metal with the highest ionization enthalpy is _______.
Answer:
Lithium (From top to bottom I.E. decreases)

Question 2.
The examples of neutral oxides are ________.
Answer:
Nitrous oxide (N2O), Nitric oxide (NO) and Carbon monoxide (CO) are examples of neutral oxides.

Question 3.
Beryllium more closely resembles with ______.
Answer:
Beryllium more closely resembles with Aluminium (Diagonal relationship)

Question 4.
The element with highest electronegativity on Pauling scale is _______.
Answer:
Fluorine (F), According to pauling scale it’s electronegativity = 4.0

Question 5.
In an atom the decrease in the attractions between nucleus and outer most electrons by the core electrons is called _____.
Answer:
Screening effect (or) shielding effect

III. One Word Answer Questions

Question 1.
State Mendeleev’s periodic law.
Answer:
The physical and chemical properties of elements are periodic functions of their atomic weights.

Question 2.
State Moseley’s modern periodic law.
Answer:
The physical and chemical properties of elements are periodic functions of their atomic numbers.

Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 3

Question 3.
What are the elements having highest electronegativity and electron gain enthalpy?
Answer:
High electronegative element is fluorine (F).
High electron gain enthalpy (electron affinity) element is chlorine (Cl).

Question 4.
What is a diagonal relationship?
Answer:
The first element of a group shows similarities in properties with the second element of the next group. This is called, ‘diagonal relationship’.

GroupIIIIIIIV
2nd periodLiBeBc
3rd periodNaMgAlSi

But this relation continues effectively upto to the IV group only.

Question 5.
What is an amphoteric oxide ?
Answer:
The oxide which contains both acidic as well as basic nature is called an amphoteric oxide.
Eg : Al2O3, Ga2Os3 etc ……

Question 6.
What is iso-electronic series.
Answer:
Series of species having same no.of electrons is called iso-electronic series.
Eg : N-3, O-2, F–, Na+, Mg+2, Al+3, Ne

Question 7.
What are transuranic elements ?
Answer:
In actinoids after uranium the elements are synthesized artificially. These are called transuranic elements.

Question 8.
What is the starting element of fifth period?
Answer:
Rubidium (Rb) is the starting element of 5th period.

Question 9.
What are the units of electron gain enthalpy ?
Answer:
Units of electron gain enthalpy are KJ/mol (or) eV/atom

Question 10.
For which group, valency and group number has no relation.
Answer:
Group 18 has no relation between valency and group number.

IV. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
An element ‘X’ has atomic number 34. Give it’s position in the periodic table.
Answer:
Given element’s Atomic number (Z) = 34 and its electronic configuration is [Ar] 4s23d104p4.
Total number of shells represents the period and the number of valence electrons represents the group. So it belongs to 4th period and VIth A group (Z = 34).

Question 2.
Mg2+ is smaller than O2- in size. Why?
Answer:

  • Mg+2 and O-2 are iso-electronic.
  • In iso-electronic series nuclear charge (or) positive charge increases size decreases. So Mg+2 smaller than O-2 in size.

Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 3

Question 3.
How does the nature of oxides change along third period from Na2O to Cl2O7 ?
Answer:
The basic nature decreases and the acidic nature increases from Na2O to Cl2O7, as shown below.

ElementNaMgAlSiPSCl
OxideNa2OMgOAl2O3SiO2P2O5SO3Cl2O7
NatureStrongly basicBasicAmphotericWeakly

acidic

AcidicStrongly

acidic

Strongly

acidic

Question 4.
Consider the following species N3-, O2-, Na+, Mg2+ and Al3+.
(a) What is common in them?
(b) Arrange them in an increasing order of their ionic radii.
Answer:
a) All the ions contain same number of electrons (10 electrons).
b) Al+3 < Mg2+ < Na+ < F– < O-2 < N-3

Question 5.
Name any two bridge elements.
Answer:
2nd period elements are bridge elements.
Lithium (Li), Beryllium (Be), Boron (B), Carbon (C) etc…

Question 6.
Define metallic radius and covalent radius.
Answer:
Metallic radius The half of the distance between centre of nucleus of two adjacent metal atoms is called metallic radius.
Covalent radius : The half of the distance between centre of nucleus of two atoms bonded covalently is called covalent radius.

Question 7.
Why cation is smaller and anion is larger in radii than their parent atoms?
Answer:
Cations after losing electron, nuclear attraction increases. Where as in anions after gaining electron, where as electron repulsion increases.
∴ Cation is smaller and anion is larger in radii than parent atom.

Question 8.
How are electronegativity and metallic and non-metallic characters related ?
Answer:

  • As the electronegativity increases metallic character decreases.
    Electronegativity ∝ \(\frac{1}{\text { Metallic character }}\)
  • As the electronegativity increases non-metallic character also increases. Electronegativity oc non-metallic character

Question 9.
Ionisation enthalpy (IE1) of O is less than that of N. Why?
Answer:
Electronic configuration of N is – 1s22s22p3, lectronic configuration of O is 1s2 2s2 2p4. Nitrogen has stable half filled 2p orbital electronic configuration. So high amount of I.E. required.
So I.E. of ‘O’ is less than ‘N’.

Question 10.
What are the oxidation state and covalency of Al in [AlCl (H2O)5]2+ ?
Answer:
In the given complex [AlCl (H2O)5]+2
Oxidation state of ‘Al’ = +3 and Covalency of ‘Al’ = 6

V. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Give any four characteristic properties of transition elements.
Answer:
Characteristic properties of transition elements.

  • They exhibit variable oxidation states.
  • They exhibit para magnetic property.
  • They form coloured compounds.
  • They form alloys.
  • They form complex compounds.
  • They form interstitial compounds.

Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 3

Question 2.
Assign the position of the element having outer electronic configuration
a) ns2 np4 for n = 3
b) (n – 1)d2 ns2 for n = 4.
Answer:
a) ns2np4 for n = 3
3s2 3p4 outer electronic configuration element is sulphur 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p4.
It belongs to 3rd period and group – 16 (VI A),
n = 3 refers third period and
3s2 3p4 total six valence electrons refers VIA group.

b) (n – 1)d2 ns2 for n = 4
3d2 4s2 outer electronic configuration element is titanium (Ar) 4s2 3d2.
It belongs to 4th period and IVB Group.

Question 3.
Which of the following will have the most negative electron gain enthalpy and which is the least electronegative among P, S, Cl, F.
Answer:
The most negative electron gain enthalpy element among P, S, Cl, F is chloride (Cl).
The least electronegative element among P, S, Cl, F is Phosphorus (P).

Question 4.
Arrange the following an increasing order.
1. EA : O, S and Se
2. Radius : Fe, Fe2+ and Fe3+
3. IE : Na, K and Rb.
4. EN : F, Cl, Br and I.
Answer:
1. O < Se < S increasing order of electron affinity
2. Fe+3 < Fe+2 < Fe increasing order of radius .
3. Rb < K < Na increasing order of I.E.
4. I < Br < Cl < F increasing order of electronegativity

Question 5.
Write a note on
1. Atomic radius 2. Metallic radius 3. Covalent radius
Answer:
Atomic radius refer to both metallic radius and covalent radius.
1. Atomic radius : As the atomic radius increases, the distance between the nucleus and the outermost electrons increases. Hence, the effective nuclear charge on the outermost electrons decreases. As a result of which the energy required to remove the electrons decreases. From this it is evident that as atomic radius increases I.P decreases. Similarly as atomic radius decreases I.P increases.

2. Metallic radius (Crystal radius) : It is defined as one – half of the inter – nuclear distance between two adjacent atoms of a metal.
Eg: Metallic radius of sodium = \(\frac{3.72}{2}\) = 1.86 Å
Metallic radius of potassium = \(\frac{4.62}{2}\) = 2.31 Å

3. Covalent radius : It is defined as one – half of the equilibrium distance between the nuclei of two atoms bonded by a covalent bond.
Eg: Covalent radius of hydrogen = 0.37 Å
Covalent radius of chlorine = 0.99 Å
Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 3 1
AB = covalent radius = 0.99 Å ; CD = van der Waal’s radius = 1.8 Å
Covalent, van der Waal’s radii of chlorine :
van der Waal’s radius : It is defined as one – half of the inter – nuclear distance between atoms of two adjacent molecules of an element bonded by van der Waal’s forces facing each other, in solid state.
Eg: van der Waal’s radius of hydrogen = 1.2 Å
van der Waal’s radius of chlorine = 1.80 Å
Note : van der Waal’s radius of an atom is 40% larger than its covalent radius.

Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 3

VI. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Discuss the construction of long form of the periodic table.
Answer:

  • The important characteristic property of an element is found to be its ‘atomic number’ and not atomic weight.
  • Accordingly, the periodic law was modified – “The physical and chemical properties of the elements are periodic functions of their atomic numbers”.
  • Later on it was found that while deciding the properties of an element, its electronic configuration plays a very important role.
  • So Bohr constructed the long form of the periodic table, based on the electronic configurations of the elements.
  • The periodic law can be stated as “The physical and chemical properties of the elements are periodic functions of their electronic configurations”.

Salient features :

  1. This table is prepared based on a fundamental property “atomic number”.
  2. This table can be easily studied, remembered and reproduced.
  3. Similarities, differences and trends in properties are more clearly reflected in this table.
  4. Vertical columns are known as groups and horizontal rows are called periods.
  5. There are seven periods in this table. The first period consists of two elements only. Second and third periods contain 8 elements each. Fourth and fifth periods contain 18 elements each. Sixth period consists of 32 elements. Seventh period is an incomplete period and consists of 19 elements.
  6. There are eighteen groups in this table. They are designated IA, IIA, IIIB, IVB, VB, VIB, VIIB, VIII, IB, IIB, IIIA, IVA, VA, VIA, VIIA, 0 (American Convention of naming).
  7. The elements in IA, IIA, IIIA, IVA, VA, VIA and VILA are known as representative elements or normal elements.
  8. The elements in IB, IIB, IIIB, IVB, VB, VIB, VIIB and VIII are called Transition elements.
  9. Zero group elements are placed at the extreme right of the table. These are called inert gases or noble gases. They possess stable ns2np6 configuration.
  10. Short periods are broken and long periods are extended to accommodate transition elements.
  11. Lanthanides and actinides are placed separately at the bottom of the periodic table.
  12. Based on the entrance of differentiating electron, the table is divided into four blocks. They are s – block, p – block, d – block and f – block. In the elements of s – block, differentiating electron enters into s – orbital. Similarly in the elements of p – block, d – block and f – block, the differentiating electron enters into s, p, d and f – orbitals respectively.
  13. Based on complete and incomplete electron shells and chemical properties, the elements are classified into four types. They are
    1. Type I – Inert gas elements),
    2. Type II – Representative elements),
    3. Type III – Transition elements,
    4. Type IV – Inner transition elements.
  14. All the elements in a group possess similar properties, because they possess the same valence electron configuration.

Question 2.
Write an essay on s,p,d, and f-block elements.
Answer:
Depending upon the entering of differentiating electron into the atomic orbitals, the elements of long form of periodic table are divided into four blocks. They are s, p, d and f – blocks. s- Block:
1) The elements, in which the differentiating electron enters the s – sub-level are called s-block elements.
2) In this block, there are two groups. They are IA and IIA.
3) The valence electron configuration of elements of IA group is ns1 and that of IIA is ns2.
4) The elements of IA are Alkali metals and IIA are Alkaline earth metals.
5) These are metals and are highly reactive.

p – Block: .

  1. The elements in which the differentiating electron enters the p – sub-level are called p – block elements.
  2. In this block, there are six groups. They are IIIA, IVA, VA, VIA, VIIA, and ‘O’.
  3. The valence electron configuration of the elements of these groups varies from ns2 np1 to ns2 np6.
  4. It includes metals, non-metals, metalloids, noble gases.

d- Block:

  1. The elements in which the differentiating electron enters into d – sub-level are called d – block elements.
  2. In this block, there are ten groups. They are IIIB, IVB, VB, VIB, VIIB, VIII, IB, IIB.
  3. The general outer configuration of d – block elements is (n – 1)d1-10 ns1-2.
  4. These elements are also known as Transition elements.
  5. These are all metals having high M.P and B.P
    Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 3 2

f – Block:

  1. The elements in which the differentiating electron enters into f – orbital are called f-block elements.
  2. In this block, there are 14 groups. They have no designation.
  3. Their general outer configuration is, (n – 2)f1-14 (n – 1)d0-1 ns2.
  4. The f – block elements are arranged separately at the bottom in two rows.
  5. The elements of first row are called lanthanides and in these elements the valence electron enters into 4f orbital.
  6. The elements of second row are called actinides and in these elements the valence electron enters into 5f orbital.
  7. All the f – block elements are also known as Inner Transition elements.
  8. These are all metals.

Question 3.
Relate the electronic configuration of elements and their properties in the classification of elements.
Answer:
All the elements are divided into four types on the basis of their properties and electronic configurations. They are: (i) Noble gas elements (ii) Representative elements (iii) Transition elements and (iv) Inner transition elements.
i) Noble gas elements: Elements in which the outermost and p sub-shells are completely filled are called inert gas elements. “0” group elements belong to this type.

  • Due to completely filled shells they show chemical inertness and possess more stability.
  • The general outer configuration of these elements is ns2np6 (except helium.)
  • The configura-tion of helium is 1s2. They are called noble gases.

ii) Representative elements : Elements in which the outermost s and p sub shells are incompletely filled are called representative elements.

  • These elements are so named because they represent most of the chemical reactions known.
    Elements of s – block and p – block (except ‘O’ group) belong to this type.
  • The general outer electronic configuration of these elements is ns1, ns2, ns2np6 to ns2np5.
  • These elements enter into chemical reactions either by losing or gaining or sharing of electrons.
  • Many of the non-metals, metalloids and some metals belong to this type.

iii) Transition elements : Elements in which the outermost and penultimate shells are partially filled are called transition elements.
They belong to d-block. Their general configuration is (n -1 )d1-9 ns1-2. They are so named because there is a gradation from electro + ve nature to electro – ve nature. They possess the following characteristic properties.

  1. They exhibit variable oxidation states.
  2. They form coloured compounds.
  3. They are all paramagnetic.
  4. They and their oxides act as catalysts.
  5. They form alloys and interstitial compounds.
  6. They form complex compounds.

iv) Inner transition elements : Elements in which the outermost, penultimate and antepenultimate shells are partially filled are called Inner transition elements.

  • They belong to f – block and are placed separately at the bottom of the table.
  • Their general outer configuration is (n – 2)f1-14 (n – 1)d0-1ns1-2.
  • They are so named as they represent a transition of physical and chemical properties among them.
  • There are two series of inner transition elements corresponding to 4f and 5f series.
  • 4f series are called lanthanides and elements of 5f series are called actinides. Lanthanides are also called rare earths.
  • Majority of actinides are synthetic.

Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 3

Question 4.
What is a periodic property? How the following properties vary in a period and group?
(a) Atomic radius
(b) Ionisation enthalpy
(c) Electronegativity
Answer:
Periodic property : The property of elements which change gradually with change in electronic configuration and repeats in regular intervals are called periodic properties. This repetition is called periodicity.
a) Atomic radius: The distance between centre of nucleus and outer most shell electrons is called atomic radius.
Variation in a group In groups from top to bottom atomic radius increases.
Reason : In a group from top to bottom valance electron enter into new shell. So size increases as a result atomic radius increases.
Variation in a period : In periods from left to right atomic radius decreases.
Reason : In a period from left to right valency electron enters into same orbit. So atomic size decreases as a result atomic radius decreases.

b) Ionisation Enthalpy: The minimum amount of energy required to remove the electron from the outer most shell of isolated neutral gaseous atom is called ionisation enthalpy.

Variation in a group : In groups from top to bottom ionisation enthalpy decreases.
Reason: In a group from top to bottom atomic size increases. This results in the decrease of nuclear attraction on outer most shell electrons.

Variation.in a period : In periods from left to right ionisation enthalpy increases.
Reason: In a period from left to right atomic size decreases. This results in increase of nuclear attraction on outer most shell electrons.

c) Electronegativity : The tendency of an atom to attract the shared pair of electrons toword? it self in a molecule is called electro negativity.

Variation in a group In groups from top to bottom electro-negativity decreases.
Reason In a group top to bottom atomic size increases. This result in the decrease of nuclear attraction on outer most shell electrons.

Variation in a period : In periods from left to right electronegativity increases.
Reason: In a period left to right atomic size decreases. This result in increase of nuclear attraction on outer most shell electrons.

Question 5.
What is a periodic property ? How the following properties vary in a period and group?
(a) Electron gain enthalpy
(b) Metallic and covalent radius
(c) Nature of oxides
Answer:
a) Electron gain enthalpy (Electron affinity) :
The amount of energy released when an electron is added to outer most shell of isolated neutral gaseous atom is called electron gain enthalpy.

Variation in a period: In periods from left to right electron gain enthalpy increases.
Reason: In a period from left to right atomic size decreases. This results in increase in nuclear attraction on outer most electrons.

Variation in a group : In groups from top to bottom electron gain enthalpy decreases.
Reason : In a group from top to bottom atomic size increases. This results in decrease in nuclear attraction on outer most electrons. .

b) Metallic and covalent radius :
Variation in periods: In periods from left to right metallic and covalent radius decreases.
Reason: In periods the no.of electron shells remains same and nuclear charge increases.

Variation in group: In groups from top to bottom metallic and covalent radius increases.
Reason : In groups the no.of electron shells increases and nuclear charge decreases.

c) Nature of oxides : Generally oxides are three types.
1) Acidic oxides.
2) Basic oxides.
3) Amphoteric oxides
1) Acidic oxides : Oxides which reacts with water to give acids are acidic oxides. Eg : SO2, N2O5, CO2

2) Basic oxides : Oxides which reacts with water to form bases (Alkalis) are called basic oxides. Eg : Na2O, K2O

3) Amphoteric oxides : Oxides which contains both acidic as well as basic nature are called amphoteric oxides. Eg : Al2O3, Ga2O3

Variation in a Period : In periods from left to right basic nature of oxides decreases and acidic nature increases.
Variation in a group : In groups from top to bottom basic nature of oxides increases.

Question 6.
Define IE1 and IE2. Why IE2 is always greater than IE1 for a given atom? Discuss the factors that effect IE of an element.
Answer:
The minimum amount of energy required to remove an electron present in the outermost orbit of a neutral, isolated gaseous atom is called ionisation potential. It is denoted by I1 and is measured in kilocalories (K. cals) or electron volts (e.v).
M(g) + I1 → \(\mathrm{M}_{(\mathrm{g})}^{+}\) + e–
The amount of energy required to remove another electron from a uni +ve ion is called second ionisation potential. It is denoted as I2.
\(\mathrm{M}_{(\mathrm{g})}^{+}\) I2 → \(\mathrm{M}_{(\mathrm{g})}^{+2}\) + e–
Ionisation energy is measured in eV/atom (or) k cal/mole (or) KJ/mole.

The uni +ve ion formed, by the removal of an electron from a neutral atom will have more nuclear attractions over the electron cloud because the number of protons will be more than the number of electrons.

As a result of which more energy is required to remove an electron from this uni +ve ion than a neutral atom. Hence second I.P values are always greater than first I.P values.

Factors affecting Ionisation potential:
1. Atomic radius : As the atomic radius increases, the distance between the nucleus and the outermost electrons increases. Hence, the effective nuclear charge on the outermost electrons decreases.

  • As a result of which the energy required to remove the electrons decreases.
  • From this it is evident that as atomic radius increases I.P decreases. Similarly as atomic radius decreases I.P increases.

2. Nuclear Charge: As nuclear charge increases, the nuclear attractions over the valence electrons increases. So, more amount of energy is required to remove these electrons. From this it is evident that as nuclear charges increases I.P increases. Similarly as nuclear charge decreases I.P. decreases.

3. Screening effect (or) Shielding effect: In multi-electron atoms, the electrons present in the inner shells screen the electron present in the outermost shells from the nuclear attractions. This effect is known as screening effect. Screening effect depends upon the number of screens (no. of inner orbits). As the screening effect increases, ionisation potential decreases. Similarly as the screening effect decreases, I.P. increases.

4. Extent of penetration of orbitals of valence electrons : As the penetration power of orbitals increases, IP also increases. Order of penetration of orbitals is S > P > d > f. Hence, order of IP is also S > P > d > f.

5. Electron configuration: Atoms of elements with half-filled or completely filled electron configuration are more stable. Such atoms have more IP values. Eg : N > O.

Question 7.
Explain the following.
1) Noble gases
2) Representative elements
3) Transition elements
4) Inner Transition elements
Answer:
All the elements are divided into four types on the basis of their properties and electronic configurations. They are : (1) Noble gas elements (2) Representative elements (3) Transition elements and (4) Inner transition elements.
1) Noble gas elements: Elements in which the outermosts and p sub-shells are completely filled are called inert gas elements. “0” group elements belong to this type.

  • Due to completely filled shells they show chemical inertness and possess more stability. The general outer configuration of these elements is ns2np6 (except helium.)
  • The configuration of helium is 1s2. They are called noble gases.

2) Representative elements : Elements in which the outermost s and p sub shells are incompletely filled are called representative elements.

  • These elements are so named because they represent most of the chemical reactions known.
  • Elements of s – block and p – block (except ‘O’ group) belong to this type. The general outer electronic configuration of these elements is ns1, ns2, ns2np1 to ns2np5.
  • These elements enter into chemical reactions either by losing or gaining or sharing of electrons. .
  • Many of the non-metals, metalloids and some metals belong to this type.

3) Transition elements : Elements in which the outermost and penultimate shells are partially filled are called transition elements.
They belong to d-block. Their general configuration is ( n -1 )d1-9 ns1-2. They are so named because there is a gradation from electro + ve nature to electro – ve nature. They possess the following characteristic properties.

  1. They exhibit variable oxidation states.
  2. They form coloured compounds.
  3. They are all paramagnetic.
  4. They and their oxides acts as catalysts.
  5. They form alloys and interstitial compounds.
  6. They form complex compounds.

4) Inner transition elements : Elements in which the outermost, penultimate and antepenultimate shells are partially filled are called Inner transition elements.

  • They belong to f – block and are placed separately at the bottom of the table. Their general outer configuration is (n – 2)f1-14 (n – 1)d0-1ns1-2.
  • They are so named as they represent a transition of physical and chemical properties among them.
  • There are two series of inner transition elements corresponding to 4f and 5f series. 4f series are called lanthanides and elements of 5f series are called actinides.
  • Lanthanides are also called rare earths. Majority of actinides are synthetic.

Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 3

Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Class 11 NCERT Solutions

Question 1.
What is the basic theme of organisation in the periodic table ?
Answer:
The basic theme of organisation of elements in the periodic table is to simplify and systematize study of the properties of all the elements and their compounds.

Question 2.
Which important property did Mendeleev use to classify the elements in his periodic table and did he stick to that ?
Answer:

  • Mendeleev recognised atomic weight as the fundamental property of elements and arranged the elements on the basis of a law called as Mendeleev’s Periodic law.
  • He sincerely stuck to this basis as many gaps were left in the periodic table for undiscovered elements and by studying the properties of adjacent elements he predicted the properties of undiscovered elements to be filled in the gaps when discovered in future.

Question 3.
What is the basic difference in approach between the Mendeleev’s Periodic Law and the Modern Periodic Law ?
Answer:
Mendeleev’s Periodic Law states that “the physical and chemical properties of the elements are periodic function of their atomic weights.”

Modern Periodic Law : “The physical and chemical properties of elements are a periodic function of their atomic numbers.” The difference between Mendeleev’s Periodic Law and Modem Periodic Law classification of elements from atomic weight to atomic number.

Question 4.
On the basis of quantum numbers, justify that the sixth period of the periodic table should have 32 elements.
Answer:

  • The 6(h period begins with the filling of principal quantum number, n = 6. But on the basis of Aufbau principle, the electrons in the 6th period can be filled in 6s, 4f, 5d and 6p subshells whose energies increases in the order 6s < 4f < 5d < 6p.
  • Therefore, there will be 16 (1 + 7 + 5 + 3) orbitals that can be filled in this period.
  • Thus, these orbitals can accommodate maximum of 32 electrons in accordance with Pauli’s exclusion principle.
  • Thus, this period contains 32 elements.

Question 5.
In terms of period and group where would you locate the element with Z = 114 ?
Answer:

  • The electronic configuration of Z = 114 is [Rn]86 7s2 5f14 6d10 7p2
  • Now, period number is equal to the principal quantum number of the valence electrons of the respective elements and group number for p-block elements is equal to the (10 + number of ns and np electrons).
  • Therefore, Z = 114 belongs to 7th period and group 14.

Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 3

Question 6.
Write the atomic number of the element present in the third period and seventeenth group of the periodic table.
Answer:

  • In the third period, the filling up of only 3s and 3p orbitals occurs. Moreover, the general electronic configuration for 17th group element is ns2 np5.
  • Thus, the given element has electronic configuration of valence shell as 3s2 3p5.
  • Since third period starts with Z = 11 and ends at Z = 18, therefore, elements with Z = 11 and Z = 12 are s-block elements.
  • The next six elements with Z = 13 to 18 are p-block elements and belong to groups 13, 14, 15, 16, 17 and 18.
  • Therefore, the element which will lie in the third period and seventeenth group will have atomic number (Z) = 10 + 7 = 17.

Question 7.
Which element do you think would have been named by (i) Lawrence Berkeley Laboratory (ii) Seaborg’s group ?
Answer:

  1. Lawrencium (Z = 103) and Berkelium (Z = 97)
  2. Seaborgium (Z = 106)

Question 8.
Why do elements in the same group have similar physical and chemical properties ?
Answer:
Elements in the same group have similar electronic configuration of valence shell and hence have similar physical and chemical properties.

Question 9.
What does atomic radius and ionic radius really mean to you ?
Answer:

  • Atomic radius is defined as the distance from the centre of the nucleus to the outermost shell containing electrons.
  • It is measured indirectly by measuring the distance between the two bonded atoms, i.e., bond length.
  • Ionic radius is defined as the distance from the nucleus of an ion upto which it has influence on its electron cloud.

Question 10.
How do atomic radius vary in a period and in a group ? How do you explain the variation?
Answer:
i) In a period, atomic radius of elements decreases from left to right. This is because on moving left to right, incoming electron is added to the same valence shell,

ii) In a group, the atomic radius increases from top to bottom. This is because as we descend a group, the principal quantum number increases and the distance between valence electrons and the nucleus increases.

Question 11.
What do you understand by isoelectronic species ? Name a species that will be isoelectronic with each of the following atoms or ions.
(i) F–
(ii) Ar
(iii) Mg2+
(iv) Rb+
Answer:
Isoelectronic species are those atoms or ions which have the same number of electrons but different magnitude of the nuclear charge.
i) F– has 10(9 + 1) electrons. Therefore, the species nitride ion has N3- (7 + 3), oxide ion has O2- (8 + 2), neon has Ne(10 + 0), sodium ion has Na+(11 – 1), Magnesium ion has Mg2+ (12 – 2), Aluminium ion has Al3+(13 – 3), etc. Each one of which contains 10 electrons are isoelectronic with it.

ii) Ar has 18 electrons. Therefore, the species phosphide ion, P3-(15 + 3); sulphate ion, S2-(16 + 2); chloride ion, Cl–(17 + 1); potassium ion, K+(19 – 1); calcium ion, Ca2+(20 – 2), etc. Each one of which contains 18 electrons are isoelectronic with it.

iii) Mg2+ has 10(12 – 2) electrons, therefore, the species N3-, O2-, F–, Ne, Na+, Al3+, etc. Each one of which contains 10 electrons are isoelectronic with it.

iv) Rb+ has 36(37 – 1) electrons. Therefore the species, bromide ion Br–(35 + 1), krypton, Kr (36 + 0) and Strontium ion Sr2+(38 – 2) each one of which has 36 electrons are isoelectronic with it.

Question 12.
Consider the following species : N3-, O2-, F–, Na+, Mg2+ and Al3+.
a) What is common in them ?
b) Arrange them in the order of increasing ionic radii.
Answer:
a) Each one of these species contain 10 electrons and hence all are isoelectronic species, b) The ionic radii of isoelectronic species decreases with the increase in the magnitude of the nuclear charge. For example, consider the isoelectronic ions N3-, O2-, F–, Na+, Mg2+ and Al3+.

  • All these ions have 10 electrons but their nuclear charges increases in the order : N3- (+7), O2- (+8), F– (+9), Na+ (+11), Mg2+ (+12) and Al3+ (+13).
  • Hence their ionic radii decreases in the order,
    Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F– < O2- < N3-

Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 3

Question 13.
Explain why cations are smaller and anions larger in radii than their parent atoms ?
Answer:

  • The ionic radius of a cation is always smaller than the parent atom because the loss of
    one or more electrons increases the effective nuclear charge.
  • As a result, the force of attraction of nucleus for the electrons increases and hence the ionic radii decreases. Moreover, number of shells also decreases.
  • Whereas, the ionic radius of an anion is always larger than its parent atom because the
    addition of one or more electrons decreases the effective nuclear charge.
  • As a result the force of attraction of the nucleus for the electrons decreases and therefore the ionic radii increases.

Question 14.
What is the significance of the terms – ‘isolated gaseous atom’ and ‘ground state’ while defining the ionization enthalpy and electron gain enthalpy ?
Hint: Requirements for comparison purposes.
Answer:
i) Ionization enthalpy is the minimum amount of energy required to remove the most loosely bound electron from an isolated atom in a gaseous state resulting in the formation of a cation. .

  • The force by which an electron is attracted by the nucleus of an atom is appreciably affected by presence of other atoms within its molecule or in the neighbourhood.
  • Therefore, for the purpose of determination of ionization enthalpy, it is essential that these interatomic forces of attraction should be minimum.
  • Since in the gaseous state, the atoms are widely separated, therefore, their interatomic forces are minimum.
  • Moreover, since it is not possible to isolate a single atom for the purpose of determination of its ionization enthalpy, therefore, the interatomic distances are further reduced by carrying out the measurement at a low pressure of the gaseous atom.
  • It is because of these reasons, that the term isolated gaseous atom in the ground state has been included in the definition of ionization enthalpy.

ii) Electron gain enthalpy is the energy released when an extra electron is added to an isolated gaseous atom in the ground state to form the gaseous negative ion.

  • The term isolated gaseous atom has already been explained above. The term ground state here means that the atom must be present in the most stable state, i.e., the ground state.
  • If the isolated gaseous atom is in the excited state, lesser amount of energy will be released when it gets converted into gaseous anion after accepting an electron.
  • Hence, for comparison purposes, the electron gain enthalpies of gaseous atom must be determined in their respective more stable state, i.e., ground state.

Question 15.
Energy of an electron in the ground state of the hydrogen atom is -2.18 × 10-18J. Calculate the ionisation enthalpy of atomic hydrojgen in terms of J mol-1.
Hint: Apply the idea of mole concept to derive the answer.
Answer:
Ionization energy is the amount of energy required to remove the electron from the ground state to infinity.
Energy of the electron in the ground state (E1) = -2.18 × 10-18 J (Given)
Energy of the electron at infinity (E∞) = 0

The energy required to remove an electron in the ground state of hydrogen atom
(∆E) = E∞ – E1 = 0 – E1 = 0 – (-2.18 × 10-18 J) = 2.18 × 10-18 J
∴ Ionisation enthalpy per mole of hydrogen atoms = 2.18 × 10-18 × 6.02 × 1023 J/mol
= 13.12 × 105 J/mol

Question 16.
Among the second period elements the actual ionization enthalpies are in the order.
Li < B < Be < C < 0 < N < F < Ne
Explain why i) Be has higher AH than B
ii) O has lower ∆iH than N and F ?
Answer:
i)

  • The electronic configuration of 4Be is 1s2 2s2 and that of 5B is 1s2 2s2 2p1.
  • Since fully filled 2s-orbital in Be is more stable than partially filled 2p-orbital of B and hence would require more energy to pull off the 2s electrons.
  • Thus, ionisation energy of Be is higher than that of B.

ii)

  • The electronic configuration of N (1s2 2s2 \(2 p_x^1 2 p_y^1 2 p_z^1\)) in which 2p-orbitals are half filled and the electronic configuration of O (1s2 2s2 \(2 p_x^2 2 p_y^1 2 p_z^1\)) in which 2p-orbitals are neither exactly half-filled nor completely filled.
  • Therefore, it is difficult to remove an electron from N than from O. As a result, ∆iH of N is higher than that of O.
  • Further, the electronic configuration of F is 1s2 2s2 \(2 p_x^2 2 p_y^2 2 p_z^1\)).
  • Because of higher nuclear charge (+9), the first ionisation enthalpy of F is higher than that of O.

Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 3

Question 17.
How would you explain the fact that the first ionization enthalpy of sodium is lower than that of magnesium but its second ionization enthalpy is higher than that of magnesium?
Answer:

  1. The electronic configuration of Na is 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 and electronic configuration of Mg is 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2.
  2. In both the cases, first electron is to be removed from the 3s orbital but nuclear charge of Mg (+12) is higher than that of Na (+11).
  3. Moreover, 3s-orbital in Mg is completely filled (more stable) while in Na it is incompletely filled (less stable).
  4. Therefore, ∆iHi of Na is lower than that of Mg.
  5. Now, after the removal of the first electron, Na+ acquires the more stable neon gas configuration.
  6. Thus, the second electron from Na is to be removed from the more stable noble gas configuration.
  7. Thus, ∆iH2 of Na is more than ∆iH2 of Mg.

Question 18.
What are the various factors due to which the ionization enthalpy of the main group elements tends to decrease down a group ?
Answer:
On moving down a group, the ionisation energy of elements gradually decreases. It is due to the following three factors.
i) The atomic size of elements increases gradually down a group due to addition of new shells. So the distance between nucleus and valence electron increases and less amount of energy is required to remove electron from the valence shell. Therefore, I.E. should decrease.

ii) The screening effect on the valence electrons of element gradually increases due to increase in number of inner shells. So the valence electrons experience less nuclear attraction. Hence the I.E should decrease.

iii) The nuclear charge increases with increase in atomic number of elements down a group, which results in increased force of attraction between nucleus and valence electrons. Hence I.E should increase.

The combining effect of increase in atomic size and screening effect compensates the increase in nuclear charge. As a result, the valence electrons are weakly held by the nucleus.
Hence the I.E decreases down the group.

Question 19.
The first ionization enthalpy values (in kJ mol-1) of group 13 elements are.

BA1GaIn11
801577579558589

How would you explain this deviation from the general trend ?
Answer:

  • On moving down the group 13 from B to Al, the ionization enthalpy decreases due to an increase in atomic size and screening effect (of s- and p-electrons of the 2nd shell) as expected.
  • However, IE1 of Ga is only slightly higher than that of Al while that of Tl is much higher than those of Al, Ga and In. This is due to the following reasons.
  • As we move from Al to Ga, due to ineffective shielding of the valence electrons by 3d- electrons, the effective nuclear charge on Ga is slightly more than that on Pd. As a result, IE1 of Ga is slightly higher than that of Al.
  • Further, on moving down the group from Ga to In, the nuclear charge increases.
  • Here, the shielding effect of all the inner electrons overweighs the effect of the increased nuclear charge and hence IE1 of In is lower than that of Ga.
  • On further moving from In to Tl, the nuclear charge further increases. This increased nuclear charge over weighs the shielding effect of all the electrons present in the inner shells including those of 4f- and 5d-electrons and hence IE1 of Tl is higher than that of In.

Question 20.
Which of the following pairs of elements would have a more negative electron gain enthalpy?
i) O or F
ii) F or Cl
Answer:
i) Both O and F belongs to 2nd period, as we move from O to F, the atomic size decreases and the nuclear charge increases.

  • Both these factors tend to increase the attraction of the nucleus for the incoming electron and thus electron gain enthalpy becomes more negative.
  • Further, gain of one electron by F gives F– ion which has stable inert gas configuration while gain of one electron by O gives O– ion which does not have stable inert gas configuration.
  • Consequently, electron gain enthalpy of F is much more negative (-328 kJ mol-1) than that of oxygen (-141 kJ mol-1).

ii) In general, the electron gain enthalpy becomes less negative on moving down the group.
But the electron gain enthalpy of chlorine (-349 kJ mol-1) is more negative than that of fluorine (-328 kJ mol-1). This is because of the small size of F atom.

  • Due to its small size, the electron-electron repulsions in the relatively compact 2p- subshell are comparatively large and hence the incoming electron is not accepted with the same ease as in the case with the larger Cl atom.
  • Therefore, electron gain enthalpy of Cl is more negative than that of F.

Question 21.
Would you expect the second electron gain enthalpy of O as positive, more negative or less negative than the first ? Justify your answer.
Answer:
When an electron is added to O atom to form O– ion, energy is released. Thus, first electron gain enthalpy of oxygen is negative.
O(g) + e–(g) → O–(g) ; ∆egH = -141 kJ mol-1

But when another electron is added to O– ion, energy is absorbed to overcome the strong electrostatic repulsion between the negatively charged O– and the second electron been added. Hence, the second electron gain enthalpy of oxygen is positive.
O–(g) + e–(g) → O2-(g) ; ∆egH = +780 kJ mol-1

Question 22.
What is the basic difference between the terms electron gain enthalpy and electronegativity?
Answer:
The basic difference between the terms electron gain enthalpy and electronegativity is that the electron gain enthalpy is related to the isolated atom in a gaseous state but electronegativity is the property of atom in the bonded state.

The electron gain enthalpy of an element has a constant value but electronegativity does not have a constant value.

Question 23.
How would you react to the statement that the electronegativity of N on Pauling scale is 3.0 in all the nitrogen compounds ?
Answer:

  • The statement that the electronegativity of N on Pauling scale is 3.0 in all nitrogen compound is incorrect. This is because the value of electronegativity does not remain constant for any given element.
  • In actual, electronegativity varies with the state of hybridization and the oxidation state of the element.
  • The electronegativity increases as the percentage of s-character of a hybrid orbital increases or the oxidation state of the element increases.
  • For example, the electronegativity of ‘N’ decreases as we move from sp-sp2-sp3 hybrid orbital. Similarly, the electronegativity of N in NO where oxidation state of N is +4 is higher than that in NO where the oxygen state of N is +2.

Question 24.
Describe the theory associated with the radius of an atom as it
i) gains an electron
ii) loses an electron
Answer:
i) Gain of electrons : The addition of electron is not compensated by the nuclear charge.

  • As a result of which there is increased repulsion among the electrons and a decrease in effective nuclear charge.
  • In other words, the electron cloud in the anion expands. As a result of which the size of the anion increases.
  • Hence, the ionic radius of an anion is larger than the atomic radius of that element.
  • For example, the ionic radius of fluoride ion (F ) is 1.36 A whereas the atomic radius of fluorine is 0.72 Å.
    Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 3 3

ii) Loss of electrons: When a neutral atom loses one electron to form a cation, its atomic radius decreases.
Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 3 4

  • This is because the number of electrons in the cation decreases while its nuclear charge remains the same as the parent atom.
  • Since the same nuclear charge now attracts lesser number of electrons, therefore, the force of attraction of the nucleus on the electrons of all the shells increases (i.e., effective nuclear charge increases) and hence the radius of cation decreases.

Question 25.
Would you expect the first ionization enthalpies for two isotopes of the same element to be the same or different ? Justify your answer.
Answer:

  • Ionization enthalpy depends upon the electronic configuration (number of electrons) and effective nuclear charge (number of protons).
  • Since the isotopes of an element have the same electronic configuration and same nuclear charge, therefore, they are expected to have same ionization enthalpy.

Question 26.
What are the major differences between metals and non-metals ?
Answer:

  • Elements which have a strong tendency to loose electrons to form cations are called metals while those which have a strong tendency to accept electrons to form anions are called non-metals.
  • Thus, metals are strong reducing agents, they have low ionization enthalpies, less negative electron gain enthalpies, low electronegativity, good conductors of heat and electricity.
  • Non-metals, on the other hand, are strong oxidising agents, they have high ionization enthalpies, high negative electron gain enthalpies, high electronegativity, poor conductors of heat and electricity (except graphite and diamond).

Question 27.
Use the periodic table to answer the following questions.
i) Identify an element with five electrons in the outer subshell.
ii) Identify an element that would tend to lose two electrons.
iii) Identify an element that would tend to gain two electrons.
iv) Identify the group having metal, non-metal, liquid as well as gas at the room temperature.
Answer:
i) The general electronic configuration of the elements having five electrons in the outer subshell is ns2 np5. This electronic configuration is characteristic of elements of group 17 (halogens), i.e., F, Cl; Br, I, Ar, etc.

ii) The elements which have a tendency to lose two electrons must have two electrons in the valence shell. Therefore, their general electronic configuration should be ns2. This electronic configuration is the characteristic of group 2 elements (alkaline earth metals), for example, Mg, Ca, Sr, Ba, etc.

iii) The elements which have a tendency to accept two electrons must have six electrons in the valence shell. Therefore, their general electronic configuration is ns2np4. This electronic configuration is characteristic of group 16 elements such as O, S, Se, etc.

iv) Group 1 and 17 contains metal, non-metal in liquid as well as gaseous state at the room temperature. For example, hydrogen is a non-metal and is present in the gaseous state. And the other elements of this group are metals. Further, Cesium (Cs) is a liquid metal. Similarly, Bromine is a liquid non-metal in group 17 while other elements of this group exists as gaseous non-metals.

Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 3

Question 28.
The increasing order of reactivity among group I elements is Li < Na < K < Rb < Cs whereas that among group 17 elements is F > Cl > Br > I. Explain.
Answer:

  • The elements of group 1 have only one electron in their respective valence shells and thus have a strong tendency to loose this electron.
  • Since the ionization enthalpy decreases down the group, therefore, the reactivity of group 1 elements increases in the same order : Li < Na < K < Rb < Cs.
  • In contrast, the elements of group 17 has seven electrons in their respective valence shells and thus have a strong tendency to accept one more electron. Since, the electrode potential of group in the same order : F > Cl > Br > I.
  • Moreover, electron gain enthalpy becomes less and less negative as we move from Cl to I, therefore, reactivity increases from Cl to I.
  • Fluorine is most reactive due to its low bond dissociation energy.

Question 29.
Write the general outer electronic configuration of s-, p-, d- and f-block elements.
Answer:

  1. s-Block element: ns1-2 (where n = 1,2, )
  2. p-Block element: ns2 np1-6 (where n = 1, 2 )
  3. d-Block element: (n – 1)d1-10 ns1-2 (where n = 4, 5, 6, 7)
  4. f-Block element: (n – 2)f1-14 (n – 1)d0-2 ns2 (where n = 6 and 7)

Question 30.
Assign the position of the element having outer electronic configuration
i) ns2 np4 for n = 3
ii) (n – 1)d2 ns2 for n = 4 and
iii) (n – 2)f7 (n – 1)d1 ns2 for n = 6, in the periodic table.
Answer:
i)

  • n = 3 suggest that the element belongs to third period. Since the last electron
    enters the p-orbital, therefore, the given element is a p-block element.
  • Further, since the valence shell contain 6(2 + 4) electrons.
  • Therefore, group number of element = 10 + number of electrons in the valence shell = 10 + 6 = 16.
  • The complete electronic configuration of the element is 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p4 and the element is S (sulphur).

ii)

  • n = 4 suggest that the element belongs to the fourth period.
    Since the d-orbital is incomplete, therefore, it is a d-block element. The group number of the element = Number of electrons in (n – l)d subshell + number of ns-electrons = 2 + 2 = 4. Thus, the element lies in group 4 and 4th period.
  • The complete electronic configuration of the element is 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d2 4s2 and the element is Ti (titanium).

iii) n = 6 means that the element belongs to the sixth period. Since the last electron goes to the f-orbital, therefore, the element is a f-block element.

  • All f-block elements lie in group 3. The complete electronic configuration of the element is [Xe] 4f7 5d1 6s2.
  • The atomic number of the element = 54 + 7+1+2 = 64 and the element is Gd (gadolinium).

Question 31.
The first (∆iH1) and the second (∆iH2) ionization enthalpies (in kJ mol1) and the (∆egH) electron gain enthalpy (in kJ mol-1) of a few elements are given below.

ElementsΔH1ΔH2∆egH
I5207300-60
II4193051-48
III16813374-328
IV10081846-295
V23725251+48
VI7381451-40

Which of the above elements is likely to be
i) the least reactive element.
ii) the most reactive metal.
iii) the most reactive non-metal.
iv) the least reactive non-metal.
v) the metal which can form a stable binary halide of the formula MX2 (X = halogen).
vi) the metal which can form a predominantly stable covalent halide of the formula MX (X = halogen) ?
Answer:
i) The element V which has highest first ionization enthalpy (∆iH1) and positive electron gain enthalpy (∆egH) and therefore it is the least reactive element.

  • Since, inert gases have positive ∆egH1 thus, the element V must be an inert gas.
  • The values of ∆iH1, ∆iH2 and ∆egH match with that of He (helium).

ii) The element which has the least first ionization enthalpy (∆iH1) and small negative electron gain enthalpy (∆egH) is the most reactive metal (element II).

  • The values of ∆iH1, ∆iH2, and ∆egH match with that of K (potassium).

iii) The element which has high first ionization enthalpy (∆iH1) and second ionization enthalpy (∆iH2) and a very high negative electron gain enthalpy (∆egH) is the most reactive non-metal (element III).

  • The values of ∆iH1, ∆iH2 and ∆egH match with that of F (fluorine).

iv) The element IV has a high negative electron gain enthalpy (∆egH) but not so high first ionization enthalpy (∆iH1).

  • Therefore, it is the least reactive non-metal.
  • The values of ∆iH1, ∆iH2 and ∆egH match with that of I (iodine).

v) The element VI has low first ionization enthalpy (∆iH1) but higher than that of alkali metals.

  • Thus, it appears that the element is an alkaline earth metal and hence will form binary halide of the formula MX2 where X = halogen.
  • The values of ∆iH1, ∆iH2 and ∆egH match with that of Mg (magnesium).

vi) The element I has low first ionization (∆iH1) but a very high second ionization enthalpy (∆iH2).
Therefore, it must be an alkali metal.

  • Since the metal forms a predominantly stable covalent halide of the formula MX (X = hydrogen).
  • The values of ∆iH1, ∆iH2 and ∆egH match with that of Li (lithium).

Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 3

Question 32.
Predict the formulas of the stable binary compounds that would be formed by the combination of the following pairs of elements.
i) Lithium and oxygen
ii) Magnesium and nitrogen
iii) Aluminium and iodine
iv) Silicon and oxygen
v) Phosphorus and fluorine
v) Element 71 and fluorine
Answer:
i) Lithium is an alkali metal (Group 1).

  • It has only one electron in the valence shell, therefore, its valency is 1.
  • Oxygen is group 16 element with valency of 2.
  • Therefore, formula of the compound formed would be Li2O (lithium oxide).

ii) Magnesium is an alkaline earth metal (Group 2) and hence has 2 valence electrons. Nitrogen is a group 15 element with valency of 8 – 5 = 3.

  • Thus, the formula of the compound formed would be Mg3N2 (magnesium nitride).

iii) Aluminium is a group 13 element with a valency of 3 while iodine is a halogen (group 17) with valency of 1.

  • Therefore, the formula of the compound formed would be AlI3 (aluminium hydride).

iv) Silicon is a group 14 element with valency of 4 while oxygen is group 16 element with valency of 2. Hence, the formula of the compound formed would be SiO2 (silicon dioxide).

v) Phosphorus is a group 15 element with valency of 3 or 5 while fluorine is a group 17 element with valency of 1. Hence, the formula of the compound formed would be PF3 or PF5.

vi) Element with atomic number 71 is a lanthanide called lutetium (Lu). Its common valency is 3. Fluorine is a group 17 (halogen) element with valency of 1.
Therefore the formula of the compound formed would be LuF3 (lutetium fluoride).

Question 33.
In the modern periodic table, the period indicates the value of
a) atomic number
c) principal quantum number
b) atomic mass
d) azimuthal quantum number.
Answer:
In the modem periodic table, each period begins with the filling of a new shell. Therefore each period represents the principal quantum number of the valence electrons of the represent elements. Thus, option (c) is correct.

Question 34.
Which of the following statements related to the modern periodic table is incorrect ?
a) The p-block has 6 columns, because a maximum of 6 electrons can occupy all the orbitals in a p-shell.
b) The d-block has 8 columns, because a maximum of 8 electrons can occupy all the orbital in a d-subshell.
c) Each block contains a number of columns equal to the number of electrons that can occupy that subshell.
d) The block indicates value of azimuthal quantum number (l) for the last subshell the received electrons in building up the electronic configuration.
Answer:
Statement (b) is incorrect, while the other statements are correct.
The correct statement is the d-block has 10 columns, because a maximum of 10 electrons can occupy all the orbitals in a d-subshell.

Question 35.
Anything that influences the valence electrons will affect the chemistry of the element. Which one of the following factors does not affect the valence shell ?
a) Valence principal quantum number (n)
b) Nuclear charge (Z)
c) Nuclear mass
d) Number of core electrons
Answer:
Nuclear mass does not affect the valence shell because it consists of protons and neutrons, when proton, i.e., nuclear charge affects the valence shell but neutrons do not. Thus, option (c) is correct.

Question 36.
The size of isoelectronic species – F–, Ne and Na+ is affected by
a) nuclear charge (Z)
b) valence principal quantum number (n)
c) electron-electron interaction in the outer orbitals
d) none of the factors because their size is the same.
Answer:

  • The size of isoelectronic ions depends upon the nuclear charge (Z).
  • As the nuclear charge increases, the size decreases.
  • For example, F– (+9) > Ne (+10) > Na+ (+11). Thus, option (a) is correct.

Question 37.
Which one of the following statements is incorrect in relation to ionization enthalpy ?
a) Ionization enthalpy increases for each successive electron
b) The greatest increase in ionization enthalpy is experienced on removal of electron from core noble gas configuration.
c) End of valence electrons is marked by a big jump in ionization enthalpy.
d) Removal of electron from orbitals bearing lower n value is easier than from orbital having higher n value.
Answer:
Statement (d) is incorrect. Its correct form is removal of electron from orbitals bearing lower n value is difficult than from orbital having higher n value.

Question 38.
Considering the elements B, Al, Mg and K, the correct order of their metallic character is
a) B > Al > Mg > K
b) Al > Mg > B > K
c) Mg > Al > K > B
d) K > Mg > Al > B
Answer:
d) K > Mg > Al > B

  • In a period, electronegativity increases and hence the metallic character decreases as we move from left to right.
  • Therefore, metallic character of K, Mg and Al decreases in the order: K > Mg > Al. Further, within a group, the electronegativity decreases and hence the metallic character increases from top to bottom.
  • Therefore, Al is more metallic than B. Hence, the correct order of decreasing metallic character will be K > Mg > Al > B.

Question 39.
Considering the element B, C, N, F and Si, the correct order of their non-metallic character is:
a) B > C > Si > N > F
b) Si > C > B > Sl > F
c) F > N > C > B > Si
d) F > N > C > Si > B
Answer:
c) F > N > C > B > Si

  • In a period, the non-metallic character increases from left to right.
  • Thus, among B, C, N and F, non-metallic character decreases in order: F > N > C > B. Further, within a group, non-metallic character decreases from the top to bottom.
  • Therefore, C is more non-metallic than Si.
  • Hence, the correct sequence of decreasing non-metallic character will be F > N > C > B > Si.

Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 3

Question 40.
Considering the elements F, Cl, O and N, the correct order of their chemical reactivity in terms of oxidizing property is
a) F > Cl > O > N
b) F > O > Cl > N
c) Cl > F > O > N
d) O > F > N > Cl
Answer:
b) F > O > Cl > N

  • Within a period, the oxidising character increases from left to right. Therefore, among F, O and N, oxidising power decreases in the order : F > O > N.
  • Further, within a group, oxidising power decreases from top to bottom.
  • Thus, F is a stronger bxidising agent than Cl. Moreover, because O is more electronegative than Cl, therefore, O is a stronger oxidising agent than Cl.
  • Hence, overall decreasing order of oxidising power will be F > O > Cl > N.

Binomial Theorem MCQ AP Inter 1st Year Maths Chapter 7

Practice AP Inter 1st Year Maths Study Material Chapter 7 Binomial Theorem MCQ to identify your strengths and weak areas.

AP Inter 1st Year Maths Binomial Theorem MCQ

Question 1.
The 3rd term of (3x – \(\frac{y^3}{6}\))4
1) \({ }^4 C_2(3 x)^2\left(\frac{-y^3}{6}\right)^2\)
2) \({ }^4 C_2(3 x)^2\left(\frac{-y^2}{6}\right)^2\)
3) \({ }^4 C_2(3 x)^3\left(\frac{-y^3}{6}\right)^2\)
4) \({ }^4 C_2(3 x)^3\left(\frac{-y^2}{6}\right)^2\)
Answer:
1) \({ }^4 C_2(3 x)^2\left(\frac{-y^3}{6}\right)^2\)

Explanation:
Given (3x – \(\frac{y^3}{6}\))4, Here a = 3x, b = \(\frac{-y^3}{6}\), n = 4, Tr+1 = nCr an-r.br

T3 = T2+1 = 4C2 (3x)4-2\(\left(\frac{-y^3}{6}\right)^2\)
= 4C2 (3x)2\(

Question 2.
C0 + 3.C1 + 32.C2 + …………. + 3n.Cn =
1) 2n
2) 3n
3) 4n
4) 5n
Answer:
3) 4n

Explanation:
We know that (1 + x)n = C0 + C1x + C1x2 + C3x3 + … + Cnxn … (1)
Put x = 3 in eq (1) we get C0 + C13 + C232 + … + Cn3n = (1 + 3)n
C0 + 3.C1 + 32.C2 + …… + 3n.Cn = 4n

Question 3.
The middle term in the expansion of (4 + 2x)6 is
1) 11240 x2
2) 10240 x3
3) 12240 x4
4) 10340 x4
Answer:
2) 10240 x3

Explanation:
Given (4 + 2x)6 contains 7 terms
The middle term T4 = T3+1 = 6C3 (4)6-3. (2x)3 = 20 × 64 × 8 × x3 = 10240 x3

Question 4.
The coefficient of x2y2 in the expansion of (x + 1)2 (y + 1)3 is
1) 3
2) 5
3) 2
4) 10
Answer:
1) 3

Explanation:
(x + 1)2 (y + 1)3 = (x2 + 2x + 1) (y3 + 3y2 + 3y + 1)
Coefficient of x2y2 is “3”

Binomial Theorem MCQ AP Inter 1st Year Maths Chapter 7

Question 5.
In the expansion of (1 + x)20, if the coefficients of rth and (r + 4)th terms are equal, then r is
1) 7
2) 8
3) 9
4) 10
Answer:
3) 9

Explanation:
Given expansion is (1 + x)20
Given condition is coefficient of r* term = coeff of (r + 4)th term
⇒ 20Cr-1 = 20Cr+3
⇒ r – 1 + r + 3 = 20 [∵ nCr = nCs ⇒ r + s = n]
⇒ 2r = 18
⇒ r = 9

Question 6.
The remainder when 848 is divided by 63 is
1) 4
2) 2
3) 1
4) 7
Answer:
3) 1

Explanation:
848 = (64)24 = (63 + 1)24 = 63q + 1 [∵ q is some Integer]
∴ Remainder = 1.

Question 7.
The expansion of (x + y)1000 is
1) [latex]\sum_{\mathrm{r}=0}^{1000} 1000 \mathrm{C}_{\mathrm{r}} \mathrm{x}^{\mathrm{r}-1000} \mathrm{y}^{\mathrm{r}}\)
2) \(\sum_{\mathrm{r}=0}^{1000} 1000 \mathrm{C}_{\mathrm{r}} \mathrm{x}^{1000-\mathrm{r}^2} \mathrm{y}^{\mathrm{r}}\)
3) \(\sum_{r=0}^{999}{ }^{1000} C_r x^{r-1000} y^r\)
4) \(\sum_{r=0}^{999}{ }^{1000} C_r x^{1000-r} y^r\)
Answer:
2) \(\sum_{\mathrm{r}=0}^{1000} 1000 \mathrm{C}_{\mathrm{r}} \mathrm{x}^{1000-\mathrm{r}^2} \mathrm{y}^{\mathrm{r}}\)

Explanation:
Given expansion = (x + y)1000 = \(\sum_{\mathrm{r}=0}^{1000} 1000 \mathrm{C}_{\mathrm{r}} \mathrm{x}^{1000-\mathrm{r}} \cdot \mathrm{y}^{\mathrm{r}}\)

Question 8.
The coefficients of the first and the last terms of the expansion (x + y)1000 are
1) 2
2) 3
3) 1
4) 7
Answer:
2) 3

Explanation:
Given expansion is (x + y)n
(x + y)n = nC0xn + nC1xn-1y + … + nCn. yn
Coefficient of first and last terms are nC0 and nCn
nC0 = nCn = 1.

Question 9.
The expansion of (xy + 2)2 is
1) x2 + y2 + 4
2) x2 y2 + 4xy + 4
3) xy2 + 4 + 2xy
4) x2y2 + 2xy + 4
Answer:
2) x2 y2 + 4xy + 4

Explanation:
(xy + 2)2 = (xy)2 + 2(xy) . 2 + 22 = x2y2 + 4xy + 4

Question 10.
The term 91C2x89 belongs to
1) x89
2) (x – 2)90
3) (x – 1)91
4) (x + 1)90
Answer:
3) (x – 1)91

Explanation:
Term 91C2x89 is belongs to (x – 1)91
T3 of (x – 1)91 = 91C2x91-2.(-1)2
= 91C2x89

Binomial Theorem MCQ AP Inter 1st Year Maths Chapter 7

Question 11.
The cofficient of x8y10 in the expansion f (x + y)18 is
1) 18C8
2) 18P10
3) 218
4) None of these
Answer:
1) 18C8

Explanation:
Given expansion is (x + y)18
The coefficient of x18y18 = 18C10
= 18C18-10
= 18C8

Organic Chemistry – Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8

Regular practice with AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Study Material Chapter 8 Organic Chemistry – Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers helps students stay prepared for examinations.

AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry 8th Lesson Organic Chemistry – Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Alicyclic compounds are
1) Aromatic compounds
2) Aliphatic cyclic compounds
3) Heterocyclic compounds Aliphatic cyclic compounds.
4) Alkanes
Answer:
2) Aliphatic cyclic compounds

Question 2.
What is the formula of Anisole?
1) C6H5OCH3
2) C6H5NH2
3) C6H5COCH5
4) C6H5OH
Answer:
The IUPAC name of Anisole is methoxybenzene.
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 1

Question 3.
Which of the following is an example for heterocyclic aromatic compound?
1) Aniline
2) Benzene
3) Furan
4) Naphthalene
Answer:
3) Furan
Furan is an example for heterocyclic aromatic compound.
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 92

Question 4.
In which of the following functional groups are arranged as per the priority order of the functional groups?
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 2
Answer:
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 3

Question 5.
The IUPAC name of Neopentane is
1) 2-methyl propane
2) 2,2-dimethyl butane
3) 2-methyl butane
4) 2,2-dimethyl propane
Answer:
4) 2,2-dimethyl propane
The IUPAC name of Neopentane is 2, 2 – Dimethyl Propane

Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8

Question 6.
Hybridisation of carbon in \(\stackrel{+}{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}_3\) is
1) sp3
2) sp3
3) sp
4) sp3d
Answer:
2) sp3

Question 7.
Which of the following involves the displacement effect of sigma bonded electrons ?
1) Mesomeric effect
2) Inductive effect
3) Resonance
4) Elficirovnerk efiecf-
Answer:
2) Inductive effect

Question 8.
Kjeldahl method is not applicable to compounds containing nitrogen in
1) Nitro group
2) Az0 group
3) Nitrogen present in the ring
4) All
Answer:
4) All
Answer:
In all cases Kjeldahls method is not applicable to compounds containing nitrogen

Question 9.
Crude oil in petroleum industry is separated by
1) Distillation
2) Fractional distillation
3) Crystallisation
4) Solvent extraction
Answer:
By Fractional distillation

Question 10.
Chloroform and aniline are easily separated by the technique
1) Distillation
2) Fractional Distillation
3) Sublimation
4) Chromatography
Answer:
1) Distillation
Chloroform and Anilin. are separatd by distillation

II. Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
Ethyl alcohol and methyl alcohol can be separated by ___
Answer:
Fractional distillation.

Question 2.
Steam distillation is applied to separate substances which are ___
Answer:
Steam volatile

Question 3.
Nitrogen, sulphur and halogens present in an organic compound are detected by ___.
Answer:
Lassaigne’s Test (or) Sodium fusion extract test.

Question 4.
Methoxy propane and Ethoxy ethane are examples of ____.
Answer:
metamers (difference in attachment of alkyl group.

Question 5.
Propanone and propanal are ____ isomers.
Propanone (ketone)
Propanal (aldehyde)
both are functional group isomers.

III. One Word Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define catenation.
Answer:
Self linkage of atoms among themselves to form long chains and rings is called catenation.

Question 2.
What is the hybridisation of carbon in Ethane ?
Answer:
In ethane (CH3 – CH3) each carbon undergo sp3 hybridization.

Question 3.
What is the hybridization of carbon in CH3F ?
Answer:
In CH3F carbon undergoes sp3 hybridization.

Question 4.
Define functional group.
Answer:
A group of atoms in a molecule that are responsible for the chemical reactivity and properties of that molecule is called functional group. Eg : Aldehyde (-CHO)

Question 5.
What is homologous series ?
Answer:
A series of organic compounds containing a characteristic functional group represented by same general formula and successive members differ by -CH2 is called homologous series. Eg : Alkanes – CH4, C2H6, C3H8 etc …….

Question 6.
How many chain isomers are possible for alkane having molecular formula C5H12 ?
Answer:
For C5H12 possible chain isomers are three
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 4

Question 7.
What is an electrophile ?
Answer:
An electrophile is a reagent that takes away an electron pair from reactive site.
Eg: \(\mathrm{NO}_2^{+}\), \(\mathrm{CH}_3^{+}\).

Question 8.
What is an electromeric effect ?
Answer:
The complete transfer of a shared pair of π – electrons to one of the atoms joined by a multiple bond on the demand of attacking reagent is called electromeric effect.

Question 9.
What is differential extraction ?
Answer:
When an organic compound is present in an aqueous solution. It is separated by shaking it with an organic solvent in which it is more soluble than in water.

Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8

Question 10.
What is distillation ?
Answer:
The method used to separate volatile liquids from non-volatile impurities and the liquids having sufficient difference in their boiling points.

Question 11.
What is retardation factor ?
Answer:
In chromatography the relative adsorption of each component of the mixture is expressed in terms of it’s retardation factor (Rf).
Rf = \(\frac{\text { Distance travelled by component }}{\text { Distance travelled by solvent }}\)

Question 12.
Write the principle involved in paper chromatography.
Answer:
The principle involved in paper chromatography is partition. Here differential partitioning between stationary phase and mobile phase.

Question 13.
Give two examples for alicyclic compounds.
Answer:
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 5

Question 14.
Give examples for benzenoid aromatic compounds.
Answer:
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 6

IV. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
How many n and a bonds are present in each of the following molecules ?
a) HC ≡ CCH = CHCH3
b) CH2 = C = CHCH3
Answer:
a) CH ≡ C – CH = CH – CH3
10σ bonds 3π-bonds
b) CH2 = C = CH – CH3
9σ bonds 2π-bonds

Question 2.
What is the type of hybridisation of each carbon in the following compound? CH3CH=CHCN
Answer:
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 7

Question 3.
What is carbocation? Give example.
Answer:
A molecule with a positively charged carbon atom is called carbocation, Eg : \(\mathrm{CH}_3^{+}\).

Question 4.
What is metamerism? Give example.
Answer:
Organic compounds having same molecular formula but differ in attachment of alkyle groups is called metamerism. These are called metamers.
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 8

Question 5.
Write the IUPAC names of
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 9
Answer:
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 10

Question 6.
Write the IUPAC names of
a) CH3CH(OH)CH3
b)
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 11
Answer:
a)
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 12

b)
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 13

Question 7.
Write the structures of
(a) 4-ethyl 2-methyl aniline and
(b) Neopentane.
Answer:
a) 4-Ethyl 2-methyl Aniline
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 14
b) Neopentane
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 15

Question 7.
Explain the principle of Adsorption chromatography.
Answer:
Principle of Adsorption chromatography This is based on the fact 15 at different compounds are adsorbed on an adsorbent to different degrees.

Question 8.
Explain the term “Crystallisation”.
Answer:
Crystallisation :This technique is used for the purification of solid organic compounds. It is based on the difference in the solubilities of the compound and the impurities in a suitable solvent.

Question 10.
What are electrophiles and nucleophiles? Give examples.
Answer:.
1) Electrophiles : (Electron loving) :A reagent that takes away an electron pair from reactive site is called electrophile (E+). Eg : \(\mathrm{NO}_2^{+}\), \(\mathrm{CH}_3^{+} .\)

2) Nucleophiles: (Nucleus loving) :A reagent that brings an electron pair to the reactive site is called a nucleophile \(\left(\mathrm{Nu}^{\Theta}\right)\). Eg : CN– and OH– etc.

V. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is the position isomerism and functional isomerism? Give one example for each.
Answer:
Position isomerism : Compounds having same molecular formula but differ in position of substituent / functional, group/ multiple bond are called position isomers.
This is called position isomerism.
Ex:
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 16
Functional group isomerism : Compounds having same molecular formula but differ in nature of functional group are called functional group isomers.
Eg:
1)Alcohols, Ethens are functional group isomers
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 17
2) Aldehydes, factors are functional group isomers
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 18

Question 2.
Explain the difference between structural isomers and stereoisomers.
Answer:

Structural IsomersStereo Isomers
1. The compounds having same molecular formula but differ in their structural arrangements of atoms or group of atoms.1. The compounds having same molecular formula but differ in their spatial arrangement of atoms or group of atoms.
2. Spatial arrangement is not considered.2. Structure of the compound is not changed.
3. Structural isomers possess different physical properties.
Ex : With increase in number of branches in alkanes with same molecular formula, boiling points are decreased.
3. Stereo isomers may or may not differ in their physical properties.
Ex :a) Diastereomers and cis-trans isomers differ in their boiling and melting points.
b) Enantiomers have same physical properties.
4. Chain isomers, positional isomers, functional isomers, metamers, ketoenol tautomers and ring isomers are called structural isomers.4. Configurational and conformational isomers are called stereo isomers.

Question 3.
Write about hyper conjugation?
Answer:
Hyperconjugation :The delocalisation of σ – electrons of C-H bond of an alkyl group directly attached to an atom of unsaturated system (or) to an atom with unshared P-orbital is called hyperconjugation.
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 19

Question 4.
Write a note on
a) Distillation,
b) Distillation under reduced pressure.
Answer:
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 20
a) Distillation:

  • This process is useful for the purification of liquids contaminated with non-volatile impurities.
  • The impure liquid is boiled in a distillation flask and the vapours are condensed and collected in a receiver.
  • This method can also be used to separate liquids which differ in their boiling points by about 40°C.

Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 21

b) Distillation under reduced pressure :

  • This method is useful to purify liquids that have very high BPs and those which decompose at or below their boiling points.
  • If the external pressure is reduced the liquid boils at lower temperature than its normal BP without decomposition.

Question 5.
What are the different types of organic reactions?
Answer:
Common types of organic reactions are
(1) Substitution reactions
(2) Addition reactions
(3) Elimination reactions
(4) Rearrangement reactions.

1) Substitution (Displacement) reactions : The replacement of an atom or group from a molecule by a different atom or group is known as ‘substitution reaction’.
Ex :
i) Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 22
ii) CH3OH + HBr → CH3 Br + H2O

2) Addition reactions : Reactions in which atoms or groups of atoms are added to a molecule are known as addition reactions.
Ex :
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 23
The multiple bond breaks and then the addition takes place.

3) Elimination reactions : The molecule loses atoms or group of atoms and a multiple bond is formed. (These are actually the reverse of addition reactions)
Ex :
i) Dehydration :
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 24

ii) Dehalogenation:
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 25

4) Molecular rearrangement reactions: In these reactions, an atom or a group migrates from one atom to another atom, within the same molecule.
Ex :
i) n – Butane to Isobutane :
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 26

ii) Benzophenone oxime to Benzanilide :
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 27

Question 6.
Write the equations involved in the detection of Nitrogen, Halogens and Sulphur in organic compounds.
Answer:
Lassaigne’s Test: In Lassaigne’s test, the organic compound is mixed with sodium metal and fused strongly.

  • The fused mass is extracted with water by plunging the red hot ignition tube in distilled water and the contents are boiled for 5 minutes and filtered.
  • The filtrate is called Sodium extract or Lassaigne’s extract.
  • If nitrogen is present in the organic compound, it reacts with sodium and carbon forming sodium cyanide.
    Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 28
  • If sulphur is present in the organic compound, it reacts with sodium forming sodium sulphide.
    2 Na + S → Na2S
  • If halogens are present in the organic compound, they form sodium halides.
    2 Na + X → 2 NaX (X = Cl, Br or I)

Test for Nitrogen : A little of the Lassaigne’s extract is made alkaline with NaOH solution and then freshly prepared FeSO4 solution is added.

  • To it 2 – 3 drops of FeCl3 solution is added, cooled and acidified with cone. HCl.
  • A prussian blue or green ppt. or colouration is observed.
    Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 29

Test for Halogens A little of the Lassaigne’s extract is acidified with nitric acid and treated with AgNO3 solution.

  • If white ppt. soluble, in NH4OH is formed, the halide is Cl–. Hence, chlorine is present.
  • If pale yellow ppt. partially soluble in NH4OH is formed, the halide is Br–. Hence, bromine is present.
  • If yellow ppt. insoluble in NH4OH is formed, the halide is I–. Hence, iodine is present.
    Test for Sulphur: To a little of the Lassaigne’s extract freshly prepared sodium nitroprusside solution is added.
  • Deep purple colouration is observed.
    Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 30

Question 7.
Write a note on Resonance effect.
Answer:
Resonance Effect : The polarity produced in the molecules by the interaction of two π bonds or between a π bond and long pair of electrons present on adjacent atom is called resonance effect (or) mesomeric effect.
Two types of Effects

1) +R Effect (Positive resonance effect) (+M effect) The transfer of electrons is away from an atom (or) substituent attached to the conjugated system is called +R effect. Eg : NH2 group

2) – R Effect (Negative resonance effect) (-M Effect): The transfer of electrons towards the atom (or)substituent attached to the conjugated system is called -R effect. Eg : CO, NO2 group.

Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8

Question 8.
Explain inductive effect with a suitable example.
Answer:
Inductive Effect The polarisation of σ-bond caused by the polarisation of adjacent σ-bond is called inductive effect
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 31
This effect is passed on to the subsequent bonds but the effect decreases after three bonds. This is a permanent effect operating in the molecule.

Types of Inductive Effect:

  1. Positive inductive Effect (+I) : Electron donating groups causes positive inductive Effet (+I). Eg : Alkyl groups R-, (Ethyl C2H5 – Methyl CH3)
  2. Negative inductive Effect (-I) Electron with drawing groups causes negative inductive effect (-I). Eg : CN–, -COOH etc…….
    • Presence of +I effect groups, in a molecule increases the basic nature of that molecule.
    • Presence of -I effect groups in a molecule increases the acidic nature of that molecule.

Question 9.
Write about homolytic fission and heterolytic fission.
Answer:
Heterolytic cleavage- Bond breaking takes place by unequal sharing of electrons of bond, i.e, shared pair of electrons remains with one of the fragment.

• Ions are formed in heterolytic cleavage.
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 32
Homolytic cleavage : Bond breaking takes place by equal sharing of electrons of bond, i.e, one of the electrons of the shared pair in a covalent bond goes with each of the bonded atoms.

• In homolytic cleavage free radicals are formed
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 33

Question 10.
Discuss the chemistry of Lassaigne’s test.
Answer:
Lassaigne’s Test: In Lassaigne’s test, the organic compound is mixed with sodium metal and fused strongly.

  • The fused mass is extracted with water by plunging the red hot ignition tube in distilled water and the contents are boiled for 5 minutes and filtered.
  • The filtrate is called sodium extract or Lassaigne’s extract.
  • If nitrogen is present in the organic compound, it reacts with sodium and carbon forming sodium cyanide.
    Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 34
  • If sulphur is present in the organic compound, it reacts with sodium forming sodium sulphide.
    2 Na + S → Na2S
  • If halogens are present in the organic compound, they form sodium halides.
    2 Na + X → 2 NaX (X = Cl, Br or I)
    Test for Nitrogen : A little of the Lassaigne’s extract is made alkaline with NaOH solution and then freshly prepared FeSO4 solution is added.
  • To it 2 – 3 drops of FeCl3 solution is added, cooled and acidified with cone. HCl.
  • A prussian blue or green ppt. or colouration is observed.
    Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 35

Test for Halogens: A little of the Lassaigne’s extract is acidified with nitric acid and treated with AgNO solution.

  • If white ppt. soluble in NH4OH is formed, the halide is Cl. Hence, chlorine is present.
  • If pale yellow ppt. partially soluble in NH4OH is formed, the halide is Br–. Hence, bromine is present.
  • If yellow ppt. insoluble in NH4OH is formed, the halide is I–. Hence, iodine is present. Test for Sulphur: To a little of the l.assaigne’s extract freshly prepared sodium nitroprusside solution is added.
  • Deep purple colouration is observed.
    Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 36

VI. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Write a note on:
a. Distillation
b. Fractional distillation
c. Distillation under reduced pressure
d. Steam distillation
Answer:
a) Distillation:

  • This process is useful for the purification of liquids contaminated with non-volatile impurities.
  • The impure liquid is boiled in a distillation flask and the vapours are condensed and collected in a receiver.
  • This method can also be used to separate liquids which differ in their boiling points by about 40 ’C.

Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 37

b) Fractional Distillation:
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 38

  • In this process loop tubes having different shapes and designs to fit for a particular requirement are used.
  • These are called fractionating columns. The liquid mixture is taken in a distillation flask, fitted with a fractionating column at its mouth.
  • At the upper end of the column, it is connected to a water condenser.
  • Then vapours of that liquid with lower BP condense and collect in the receiver.

c) Distillation under reduced pressure :
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 39

  • This method is useful to purify liquids that have very high BPs and those which decompose at or below their boiling points.
  • If the external pressure is reduced the liquid boils at lower temperature than its normal BP without decomposition.

d) Steam distillation :
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 40

  • Liquids immiscible with water and possessing high BP can be purified by steam distillation. In this method, steam is passed into the hot impure liquid.
  • Steam mixed with volatile organic compound comes out. It passes through the condenser and collects in the receiver.
  • The water layer and the organic layer are separated using a separating funnel.

Question 2.
Write a brief note on chromatography.
Answer:
Chromatography is a method of separation of components of a mixture between the stationary phase and a mobile phase.

Chromatography involves the following three steps :

  1. Adsorption and retention of a mixture of substances on the stationary phase and separation of adsorbed substances by the mobile phase to different distances on the stationary phase.
  2. Recovery of the substances separated by a continuous flow of the mobile phase (known as elution) and
  3. Qualitative and quantitative analysis of the eluted substances.

* Based on the physical states of the stationary phase and mobile phase and also on the basis of the principle of adsorption of substances on the stationary phase chromatography processes are classified into several types as given below.

Chromatography processesStationary phaseMobile phase
1) Column chromatographysolidliquid
2) Liquid- liquid partition chromatographyliquidliquid
3) Paper chromatographyliquidliquid
4) Thin layer chromatography (TLC)liquid or solidliquid
5) Gasliquid chromatography (GLC)liquid gas
6) Gas – solid chromatography (GSC)solidgas
7) Ion exchange chromatographysolidliquid

There are two chromatography techniques
(1) Adsorption chromatography
(2) Partition chromatography.

Question 3.
Explain the following:
a. Column chromatography
b. Thin layer chromatography
c. Partition chromatography
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 41
Answer:
a) Column chromatography:

  • In this type of chromatography the components of a mixture are separated by a column of adsorbent (stationary phase) packed in a glass tube. The column is fitted with a stopcock at its lower end.
  • The mixture to be adsorbed on the adsorbent is placed at the top of the stationary phase. cotton
  • A suitable eluant (solvent) is allowed to flow down the column slowly.
  • Depending on the degree to which the compounds are adsorbed, the components are separated.
  • The most readily adsorbed substances are retained near the top and others come down accordingly to various distances.

b) Thin layer chromatography:

  • This type of chromatography also involves adsorption differences. Here the adsorbent silica gel or alumina is coated over a glass plate of suitable size.
  • The plate is called TLC plate or chromoplate.
  • The solution of the mixture to be separated by a small spot at about 2 cm from the bottom of the plate. The plate is then kept in a closed jar containing the eluant (solvent).

Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 42

  • As the eluant rises up the plate, the components of the mixture move up along with the eluant to various distances depending on their degree of adsorption.
  • The relative adsorption of a component of the mixture is expressed in terms of its retardation factor (Rt) value.
    Rt \(=\frac{\text { Distance moved by the substance from base line }(\mathrm{X})}{\text { Distance moved by the solvent from the base line }(\mathrm{Y})}\)

c) Partition chromatography:
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 43

  • This is based on continuous differential partitioning of components of a mixture between the stationary phase and the mobile phase.
  • In this type of chromatography, a special paper called chromatography paper contains water trapped in it which acts as the stationary phase.
  • The chromatography paper spotted with the solution of the mixture at the base is suspended in a suitable solvent or a mixture of solvents. This solvent acts as the mobile phase.
  • The solvent rises up the paper by capillary action and moves over the spot.
  • The paper selectively retains different components as per their differing partition in mobile and stationary phases.
  • The paper strip so developed is known as chromatogram. The spots of the separated coloured compounds are detected.
  • For colourless compounds, other methods like spraying a suitable reagent are used.

Question 4.
Explain the estimation of nitrogen of an organic compound by-
a. Dumas method
b. Kjeldahl’s method
Answer:
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 44
a) Estimation of nitrogen by Duma’s method:

  • In this methodm, a known weight of organic compound is heated strongly with coarse cupric oxide.
  • Then carbon and hydrogen get oxidised to CO2 and H2O vapour respectively. Nitrogen is converted to N2 gas.
  • Some nitrogen converted into its oxides, gets reduced by copper gauze to nitrogen.
  • The liberated gases are passed over a solution of KOH. Then CO2 gets absorbed.
  • Nitrogen is collected over KOH solution and its volume is found out.

Calculation :
Suppose ‘a’ g of organic compound gives V ml of N2 gas at room temp. T K.
Vol. of N2 gas at STP is calculated as follows.
Expt. conditions
P1 = (P – p) mm where
p = aqueous tension
T2 = 273
V2 = ?

STP conditions
P2 = 760 mm
T1 = T K
V1 = V

From, \(\frac{\mathrm{P}_1 \mathrm{~V}_1}{\mathrm{~T}_1}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{P}_2 \mathrm{~V}_2}{\mathrm{~T}_2}\) ⇒ V2 = \(\frac{\mathrm{P}_1 \mathrm{~V}_1 \mathrm{~T}_2}{\mathrm{P}_2 \mathrm{~T}_1}\) = \(\frac{(\mathrm{P}-\mathrm{p}) \times \mathrm{V} \times 273}{760 \times \mathrm{T}}\) = x ml.
22,400 ml. of N2 at STP weighs 28 g
∴ x ml. of N2 at STP weighs …… ?
= \(\frac{x \times 28}{22,400}\)g
‘a’ g of organic compound contains \(\frac{28 \times x}{22400}\) g of N2
∴ 100 g of organic compound contains ?
= \(\frac{100}{\mathrm{a}}\) × \(\frac{28 \times x}{22400}\) g of N2

b) Estimation of N2 by Kjeldahl’s method :

  • In this method, the organic compound is heated with conc. H2SO4 in presence of a small amount of CuSO4.
  • Then N2 is quantitatively converted into ammonium sulphate.
  • The contents of the flask are transferred into another flask and heated with excess of NaOH solution to liberate ammonia gas.

Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 45

  • The gas so liberated is passed and absorbed in a known vol. of known conc. H2SO4 (excess).
  • Now the excess of acid remained after the neutralisation by NH3 is titrated against a standard solution of alkali.
  • From this, the amount of H2SO4 used to neutralise NH3 is calculated.

From this the mass of ammonia formed is calculated and from that the % of N2 gas is calculated.

Kjeldahls method for the estimation of nitrogen:
Organic compound + H2SO4 → (NH4)2 SO4
(NH4)2SO4 + 2 NaOH → NaSO4 + 2 H2O + 2NH3
2 NH3 + H2SO4 → (NH4)2 SO4

Calculations :
Mass of organic compound = a g
Vol. of H2SO4 initially taken = Vml.
Molarity of H2SO4 = M
Vol. of NaOH consumed after complete neutralisation = V1 ml.
Molarity of NaOH = M
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 46

Question 5.
Explain Inductive effect with a suitable example.
Answer:
Inductive Effect : The polarisation of o-bond caused by the polarisation of adjacent o-bond is called inductive effect.
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 93

  • This effect is passed on to the subsequent bonds but the effect decreases after three bonds.
  • This is a permanent effect operating in the molecule.

Types of Inductive Effect:

1) Positive inductive effect (+I) : Electron donating groups causes positive inductive effect (+I).
Eg : Alkyl groups R-, (Ethyl C2H5 – Methyl CH3)

2) Negative inductive effect (-I) : Electron withdrawing groups causes negative inductive effect (-I). Eg : CN–, -COOH etc….
Presence of +I effect groups in a molecule increases the basic nature of that molecule. Presence of -I effect groups in a molecule increases the acidic nature of that molecule.
Eg:
1) Acidic nature of trichloro acetic acid (CCl3COOH) > dichloro acetic acid (CHCl2COO) > Mono chloroacetic acid (ClCH2COOH) > (Acetic acid (CH3COOH)
This is due to the presence of -I. effecting group – CH3.

Eg : 2) Basic nature of dimethyl amine (CH3)2NH > Methyl amine (CH3NH2) > Ammonia (NH3).
This is due to the presence of + I. effecting group CH3.

Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8

Question 6.
Write a note on Mesomeric effect.
Answer:
Mesomeric Effect : The polarity produced in the molecules by the interaction of two π bonds or between a π bond and long pair of electrons present on adjacent atom is called resonance effect (or) mespmeric effect.

Two types of Effects

1) +R Effect (Positive resonance effect) (+M effect) : The transfer of electrons is away from an atom (or) substituent attached to the conjugated system is called +R effect.
Eg : NH2 group

2) – R Effect (Negative resonance Effect) (-M Effect): The transfer of electrons towards the atom (or) substituent attached to the conjugated system is called -R effect.
Eg : CO, NO2 group.

Question 7.
Describe Resonance effect with one example.
Answer:

  • It is not possible to explain the properties of a molecule by giving a single structure to it. Then several possible structures are to be proposed.
  • Each structure will explain some properties of the molecule.
  • All structures put together explain all the properties. This phenomenon is known as resonance.
  • All the structures thus proposed are called resonance or canonical structures.

Eg : Urea CO(NH2)2 has the following resonance (or canonical) structures.
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 48

Salient features of resonance :

  1. Resonance structures are interconvertible.
  2. Resonance involves only displacement of electrons without disturbing the positions of atoms.
  3. All atoms in the molecule should lie in the same plane.
  4. The no. of paired and unpaired electrons should be the same in all the structures.
  5. The canonical structures should have nearly equal energy.
  6. More stable resonance structure contributes more to the actual structure of the molecule.
  7. More the delocalisation of electrons, more is the stability.
  8. More the covalent bonds, more is the stability and charge separation gives less stability.

Resonance effect : It is the polarity produced in a molecule by the interactions of two p bonds or between a p bond and a lone pair of electrons present on adjacent atoms. This effect is transmitted throughout the chain.

  • If the transfer of electrons is away from the atoms of substituent groups attached to the conjugated system, then the molecule gets high electron density in some of its positions as in aniline and it is given (+R).
  • If the shift of electrons is towards the atom or substituent groups, it is (-R) as in nitrobenzene.
    Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 49

Resonance Energy : The energy difference between the real structure and the most stable resonance structure is called resonance stabilisation energy or resonance energy.

Question 8.
Explain different types of organic reactions with suitable examples.
Answer:
Common types of organic reactions are
(1) Substitution reactions
(2) Addition reactions
(3) Elimination reactions
(4) Rearrangement reactions.

1) Substitution (Displacement) reactions : The replacement of an atom or group from a molecule by a different atom or group is known as ‘substitution reaction’.
Eg :
i)
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 50
ii) CH3OH + HBr → CH3 Br + H2O

2) Addition reactions : Reactions in which atoms or groups of atoms are added to a molecule are known as addition reactions.
Eg :
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 51
The multiple bond breaks and then the addition takes place.

3) Elimination reactions : The molecule loses atoms or group of atoms and a multiple bond is formed. (These are actually the reverse of addition reactions.)
Eg :
i) Dehydration :
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 52

ii) Dehalogenation:
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 53

4) Molecular rearrangement reactions : In these reactions, an atom or a group migrates from one atom to another atom, within the same molecule.
Eg :
i) n – Butane to Isobutane :
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 54

ii) Benzophenone oxime to Benzanilide :
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 55

Organic Chemistry – Some Basic Principles and Techniques Class 11 NCERT Solutions

Question 1.
What are hybridisation states of each carbon atom in the following compounds ?
CH2 = C = O, CH3CH = CH2, (CH3)2CO, CH2 = CHCN, C6H6
Answer:
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 56

Question 2.
Indicate the σ and π bonds in the following molecules :
C6H6, C6H12, CH2Cl2, CH2 = C = CH2, CH3NO2, hconhch3
Answer:
i)
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 57

ii)
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 58

iii)
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 62

iv)
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 63

v)
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 64

vi)
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 65

Question 3.
Write bond line formulas for : Isopropyl alcohol, 2, 3-dimethyl butanal, Heptan-4-one.
Answer:
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 66

Question 4.
Give the IUPAC names of the following compounds.
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 67
Answer:
i) Propyl benzene
ii) 3-methylpentane-1-nitrile
iii) 2, 5-dimethyl heptane
iv) 3-bromo-3-chloro heptane
v) 3-chloro propanal
vi) 2, 2-dichloro ethanol

Question 5.
Which of the following represents the correct IUPAC name for the wipounds concerned?
i) 2, 2-dimethylpentane or 2-dimethylpentane
ii) 2, 4, 7-trimethyloctane or 2, 5, 7-trimethyloctane
iii) 2-chloro-4-methylpentane or 4-chloro-2-methylpe ntane
iv) But-3-yn-1-ol-or But-4-ol-1-yne
Answer:
i) 2, 2-dimethylpentane is correct. 2-dimethylpentane is wrong because locant 2 is mentioned only once for two methyl groups.
ii) 2, 4, 7-trimethyloctane is correct. This is because the sum 2 + 4 + 7 = 13 is lower than the sum 2 + 5 + 7 = 14
iii) 2-chloro-4-methylpentane is correct. This is because in 4-chloro-2-methylpentane, the numbering is not done from the end from which Cl is nearer.
iv) But-3-yn-l-ol is correct. In But-4-ol-l-yne, the locant for the principal group (-OH), is greater.

Question 6.
Draw formulas for the first five members of each homologous series beginning with the following compounds.
i) H – COOH
ii) CH3COCH3
Answer:
i) HCOOH, CH3COOH, CH3CH2COOH
CH3CH2CH2COOH, CH3CH2CH2CH2COCH
ii) CH3COCH3, CH3CH2COCH3, CH3CH2CH2COCH3
CH3CH2CH2CH2COCH3, CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2COCH3
iii) CH2 = CH2, CH3 – CH = CH2, CH3 – CH2 – CH = CH2
CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH = CH2, CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – CH = CH2

Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8

Question 7.
Give condensed and bond line structural formulas and identify the functional group(s) present, if any for
i) 2, 2, 4-trimethylpentane
ii) 2-hydroxy-l, 2, 3-propanetricarboxylic acid
iii) Hexanedial
Answer:
i) Condensed formula : (CH3)3CCH2CH(CH3)2
Bond-line formula:
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 68
Functional group(s) present: Nil

ii) Condensed formula : HOOCCH2C (OH)
Bond-line formula:
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 69
Functional group(s) present:
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 70
iii) Condensed formula : OHC(CH2)4CHO
Bond-line formula:
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 71
Functional group(s) present:
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 72

Question 8.
Identify the functional groups in the following compounds
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 73
Answer:
i) -CHO (aldehyde), -OH (alcohol), and -OMe i.e., -OCH3 (ether)
ii) -NH2 (1° amine, aromatic),
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 74 -(ester), -N(C2H5)2 (3° amine)
iii) -CH = CH- (ethylenic double bond), -NO2 (nitro)

Question 9.
Which of the two : O2NCH2CH2O– or CH3CH2O–. is expected to be more stable and why?
Answer:

  • O2NCH2CH2O is more stable than CH3CH2O–. This is because -NO2 group is electron attracting and exerts -1-effect.
  • Therefore, negative charge present on —O— is dispersed and molecule is stabilised. On the other hand, -CH3 – CH2– group in CH3CH2O – exerts + 1-effect and increases electron density at -O–. This de-estabilises the CH3 – CH2O– species.
    Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 75

Question 10.
Explain, why alkyl groups act as electron donors when attached to a π system.
Answer:
Due to’ hyperconjugation, alkyl groups act as electron donors when attached to a π-system. For example, let us consider hyperconjugation in propene.
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 76

Question 11.
Draw the resonance structures for the following compounds. Show the electron shift using curved-arrow notation.
i) C6H6OH
ii) C6H5NO2
iii) CH3CH = CHCHO
iv) C6H5 – CHO
v) C6H5 – \(\stackrel{+}{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}_2\)
vi) CH3 -CH = CH\(\stackrel{+}{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}_2\)
Answer:
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 77

Question 12.
What are electrophiles and nucleophiles ? Explain with examples.
Answer:

  1. Electrophiles are electron loving reagents. They are electron deficient and so, act as Lewis acid and seek electrons.
    Ex : H+, H3O+, \(\mathrm{O}_2^{+}\) (from HNO3), SO3H+, NO+, Br+, AlCl3, BF3 are neutral species which act as electrophiles.
  2. Nucleophiles are nucleus loving reagents. They are electron rich and so, act as a Lewis base and donate electrons.
    Ex : Cl–, Br–, I–, OH–, CN–, RO– (alkoxide ion), RCOO–.

Question 13.
Identify the reagents shown in bold in the following equations as nucleophiles or electrophiles.
i) CH3COOH + HO– → CH3COO– + H2O
ii) CH3COCH3 + CN– → (CH3)2C(CN)(OH)
iii) C6H5 + \(\stackrel{+}{\mathbf{C}} \mathbf{O}\) → C6H5COCH3
Answer:
i) OH– is nucleophile.
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 78
ii) CN– is also a nucleophile.
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 79
iii) CH3\(\mathrm{C}^{+} \mathrm{O}\) is electrophile
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 80

Question 14.
Classify the following reactions in one of the reaction type studied in this unit.
i) CH3CH2Br + HS– → CH3CH2SH + Br–
ii) (CH3)2C = CH2 + HCl → (CH3)2ClC – CH3
iii) CH3CH2Br + HO– → CH2 + H2O + Br–
iv) (CH3)3C – CH2OH + HBr → (CH3)2 CBrCH2CH3 + H2O
Answer:
i) Nucleophilic substitution reaction
ii) Electrophilic addition
iii) Bimolecular elimination
iv) Nucleophilic substitution with rearrangement.

Question 15.
What is the relationship between the members of following pairs of structures ? Are the structural or geometrical isomers or resonance contributors ?
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 81
Answer:
i) Structural isomers (position isomers as well as metamers)
ii) Geometrical isomers.
iii) Resonance contributors

Question 16.
For the following bond cleavages, use curved-arrows to show the electron flow and classify each as homolysis or heterolysis. Identify reactive intermediate produced as free radical carbocation and carbanion.
Answer:
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 82

Question 17.
Explain the terms inductive and electromeric effects. Which electron displacement effect explains the following correct orders of acidity of the carboxylic acids ?
i) Cl3CCOOCH > Cl2CHCOOH > ClCH2COOH
ii) CH3CH2COOH > (CH3)2CHCOOH > (CH3)3C.COOH
Answer:
Inductive effect:

  • Polar covalent bond in organic compounds cause inductive effect.
  • For example, in chloroethane (2CH3 1CH2– Cl), C – Cl bond is a polar covalent bond.
  • This is because Cl is more electronegative than C.
  • It is polarised in such a way that the carbon-1 gains some -ve charge (δ+), the chlorine gains some -ve charge (δ–) and may be represented as,
    Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 83
  • The polar C – Cl bond induces polarity in the adjacent bonds. Such polarisation of one σ-bond caused by the polarisation of adjacent σ-bond is referred to as the inductive effect.
  • The inductive effect is related to the ability of substituents (s) to either withdraw or donate electron density to the attached carbon atom. Electron withdrawing groups like halogens, nitro (-NO2), cyano (-CN), carboxy (-COOH), ester (-COOR), aryloxy (-OAr), produce, I-effect, whereas electron donating groups like methyl (-CH3), ethyl (-CH2 – CH3) etc. produce + I-effect.

Electromeric effect:

• It involves the complete transfer of electrons of a multiple bond e.g., double or triple bond to one of the bonded atoms (usually more electronegative) in presence of attacking reagent.
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 84
This effect is temporary and occurs only in the presence of a reagent.

• When the electrons of a π-bond are transferred to that atom of the double bond to which the reagent get finally attached the effect is called + E-effect.
Example :
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 85
On the other hand, when the electrons of the double bond are transferred to an atom of the double bond, other than the one to which the reagent gets finally attached, the effect is called -E-effect.
Example :
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 86
i) Example of -I-effect:
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 87

ii) Example of +I-effect:
Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 88

Question 18.
Give a brief description of the principles of the following techniques taking an example in each case :
i) Crystallisation
ii) Distillation
iii) Chromatography
Answer:
i) Crystallisation:

  • This is one of the most commonly used techniques for the purification of solid organic compounds. It is based on the difference in the solubilities of the compound and the impurities in a suitable solvent.
  • The impure compound is dissolved in a solvent in which it is sparingly soluble at room temperature but appreciably soluble at higher temperature.
  • The solution is concentrated to get a nearly saturated solution.
  • On cooling the solution, pure compound crystallises out and is removed by filtration. Freezing of water into ice is an example of crystallisation.

ii) Distillation :

  • A separation process in which a liquid is converted to vapour and the vapour is then condensed to a liquid is called distillation.
  • Distillation is thus a process of evaporation and condensation.
  • For example, the process can be used in the purification of a mixture of chloroform (bp 334 K) and aniline (bp 457 K) having a large difference in their boiling points.

Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 89

  • A pure solvent, a mixture of solvents, or a gas is allowed to move slowly over the stationary phase.
  • The components of the mixture get gradually is an extremely valuable method for the separation of amino-acid, geometrical and optical isomers.

Question 19.
Describe the method, which can be used to separate two compounds with different solubilities in a solvent S.
Answer:

  • Two compounds having different solubilities in a solvent S, can be separated by a technique called fractional crystallisation.
  • When a hot saturated solution of two compounds is allowed to cool, the less soluble compound crystallizes out first, leaving more soluble compound in the solution.
  • The crystals of the first compound are separated from the mother liquor.
  • Now mother liquor is further concentrated and the hot solution is again allowed to cool, when the crystals of the second i.e., more soluble compound separate out.

Question 20.
What is the difference between distillation, distillation under reduced presure and steam distillation ?
Answer:
Distillation is used to separate :

  1. volatile liquids from non-volatile impurities, and
  2.  liquids having sufficient difference in boiling point.
    • Distillation under reduced pressure is used to separate compounds which decompose at or below their boiling points.
    • Steam distillation is applied to those substances which have high boiling point are steam volatile and immiscible with water.

Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8

Question 21.
Discuss the chemistry of Lassaigne’s test.
Answer:
Lassaigne’s test: For this test a “Sodium extract” is prepared for the substance. This is done by heating a pea-sized piece of sodium metal in a combustion tube (5 cm in length and 0.3 cm in diameter) and melted over bunsen burner flame.

  • Organic substance is added to the molten sodium pinch by pinch or drop by drop.
  • After some substance has reacted, the heating of the combustion tube is gradually increased to redness.
  • The red hot tube is broken into about 10 mL of distilled water kept in a dish.
  • The solution is then heated to boiling for a few minutes. Any of the sodium metal, left unreacted, reacts with water as follows :
    2Na + 2HOH → 2NaOH + H2
  • The solution is filtered. The filtered solution is called sodium extract or Lassaigne’s extract.
  • In this process, the nitrogen of the organic substance is converted to sodium cyanide, sulphur to sodium sulphide or sulpho cyanide and the halogens to the respective halides.
  • All these are soluble in water.
    Na + C + N → NaCN (cyanide)
    2Na + S → Na2S (sulphide)
    Na + S + C + N → NaSCN (sulpho cyanide)
    Na + X → NaX (halide) (X = Cl, Br or I)

Question 22.
Differentiate between the principle of estimation of nitrogen in an organic compound by
i) Dumas method
ii) Kjeldahl’s method
Answer:
i) In Dumas method, a known weight of organic compound containing nitrogen is heated in presence of CuO, such that the nitrogen present in organic compound is changed to dinitrogen.

  • The evolved dinitrogen is collected in a nitrometer.
  • The volume thus obtained is converted to NTP and the percentage of nitrogen is calculated by using the equation.
    %N = \(\frac{28}{22400}\) × \(\frac{\text { Volume of } \mathrm{N}_2 \text { at NTP } \times 100}{\text { Mass of organic compound taken }}\)

ii) In Kjeldahl’s method, a known weight of organic compound containing nitrogen is heated with cone. H2SO4. in presence of K2SO4 and little Hg in a long necked flask called Kjeldahl’s flask.

  • When nitrogen present in organic compound is converted into (NH4)2SO4 that is boiled with excess of NaOH solution to liberate NH3 gas which is further absorbed in a known excess of standard H2SO4.
  • The volume of acid unused is determined by titration against a standard alkali solution.
  • From the volume of the acid used the percentage of nitrogen is determined by using the equation.
    %N \(=\frac{1.4 \times \text { Molarity of acid × basicity of acid } \text { × } \text { volume of acid used }}{\text { Mass of the substance taken }}\)

Question 23.
Discuss the principle of estimation of halogens, sulphur and phosphorus present in an organic compound.
Answer:
i) Estimation of halogen by the Carius method:

  • A small quantity of the substance is weighed in a small ignition tube (3 mm in diameter × 50 mm in length) and is placed in Carius tube (a thick-walled Jena glass tube about 45 cm long and 2.5 cm in diameter) having enough of concentrated HNO3 and AgNO3 crystals [in Fig. (a)].
  • The Carius tube is sealed by using an oxygas flame.
  • The sealed tube is placed in an iron socket tube heated in a special furnace.
  • The furnace temperature is maintained near 475 K [in Fig. (b)] for six to seven hours and then the furnace is allowed to cool down to room temperature.

Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 90

  • The halogen part of the substance is converted into the corresponding silver halide. After breaking the seal, contents of the Carius tube are collected.
  • Silver halide is filtered, washed, dried and weighed. Percentage of the halogen is then calculated from the mass of silver halide formed.
    Percentage of halogen \(=\frac{\text { Mass of silver halide } \text { × } \text { Atomic mass of halide } \times 100}{\text { Molecular mass of silver halide } \text { × } \text { Mass of organic compound }}\)

ii) Estimation of sulphur : This is also done by the Carius method.

  • Instead of adding crystals of AgNO3 as done for halogens, crystals of BaCl2 are added.
  • The sulphur part is oxidised to sulphuric acid.
  • This gives a precipitate of BaSO4 which is collected, washed, dried and weighed. 233.34 g of BaSO4 contains 32 g of sulphur.
    Percentage of sulphur \(=\frac{\text { Weight of } \mathrm{BaSO}_4 \times \text { Atomic mass of sulphur } \times 100}{\text { Molecular mass of } \mathrm{BaSO}_4 \times \text { Mass of organic compound }}\)

iii) Estimation of Phosphorus : Non-volatile orthophosphoric acid H3PO4, which is precipitated as MgNH4PO4 with magnesia mixture.

• On heating the precipitate Mg2P2O7 is obtained as a stable residue.

•Calculation of percentage of phosphorus can be done as follows.
(P) → H3PO4
H3PO4 + Magnesia mixture → MgNH4PO4
2MgNH4PO4 → Mg2P2O7 + 2NH3 + H2O
Molecular mass of Mg2P2O7 = 2 × 24 + 2 × 31 + 7 × 16 = 222 units
222 g of Mg2P2O7 contain 62 g of phosphorus
Let mass of substance be w gram and of Mg2P2O7 residue x grams.
Mass of phosphorus in x gram of Mg2P2O7 = \(\frac{62 x}{222} \mathrm{~g}\)
Percentage of phosphorus in the compound = \(\frac{62 x}{222} \times \frac{100}{w}\)

Question 24.
Explain the principle of paper chromatography.
Answer:

  • Paper chromatography is also known as partition chromatography. It is based on the principle of continuous partitioning of component of a mixture between stationary and mobile phases.
  • In paper chromatography, a special quality paper known as chromatography paper is used and the water trapped in it act as the stationary phase.
  • A rectangular chromatography paper (of about 22 cm length and 5 cm width) is taken. It is spotted with the mixture of the solution (say blue and red ink) at the centre of its one end.
  • The chromatography paper is fixed vertically between two halves of the cork and suspended in suitable solvent or a mixture of solvent (in the present case in a mixture of 1 volume methanol and 9 volume water) taken in a boiling tube in such a way that the ink spot is just above the solvent level, (figure (a))

Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8 91

  • The solvent rises up the paper by capillary action and flows over the spot (in the present case mixture of ink). As a result, the coloured components (in the present case ink) get dissolved in the solvent mixture and rises up the paper by capillary action.
  • The paper selectively retains different components (red and blue ink) are visible at different heights from the position of the initial spot on the chromatogram. (figure (b)).
  • In case the spots separated are colourless, they may be observed by the use of an appropriate spray reagent.

Question 25.
Why is nitric acid added to sodium extract before adding silver nitrate for testing halogens?
Answer:

  • Nitric acid is added to sodium extract before adding silver nitrate for testing halogens, because if sodium extract contains Na2S or NaCN along with NaX, silver nitrate will give Ag2S and AgCN etc., and will interfere in the test.
  • To remove sulphide and cyanide as H2S, and HCN dil. HNO3 is added.
    NaCN + HNO3 → NaNO3 + HCN↑
    Na2S + 2HNO3 → 2NaNO3 + H2S↑

Question 26.
Explain the reason for the fusion of an organic compound with metallic sodium for testing nitrogen, sulphur and halogens.
Answer:

  • Nitrogen, sulphur and halogens are present in organic compound in covalent form, which cannot be analysed.
  • On fusion with sodium these are converted in ionic form in the form of sodium cyanide, sodium halide, sodium sulphide etc.

Question 27.
Name a suitable technique of separation of the components from a mixture of calcium sulphate and camphor.
Answer:
By sublimation, the two can be separated. Camphor sublimates whereas CaSO4 is left behind.

Question 28.
Explain why an organic liquid vaporises at a temperature below its boiling point in its steam distillation.
Answer:

  • In steam distillation, the mixture of organic liquid and water boils at a temperature at which the sum of vapour pressure of the liquid (p1) and that of water (p2) is equal to that of the atmospheric pressure (p) i.e., p = p1 + p2
  • This is attained at a temperature much below the boiling point of the liquid. In other words, the organic liquid vaporises at a temperature much lower than its normal boiling point.

Question 29.
Will CCl4 give white precipitate of AgCl on heating it with silver nitrate ? Give reason for your answer.
Answer:
CCl4 will not give any white precipitate of AgCl on heating it with silver nitrate solution. Carbon tetrachloride contains chlorine, but it is bonded to carbon atom by a covalent bond; hence it does not give any precipitate of silver chloride.

Question 30.
Why is a solution of potassium hydroxide used to absorb carbon dioxide evolved during the estimation of carbon present in an organic compound ?
Answer:
2KOH + CO2 → K2CO3 + H2O
Total CO2 formed by organic compound is absorbed by potassium hydroxide solution. And then the percentage of C present in organic compound can be calculated using,
C% \(=\frac{12}{44}\) \(\times \frac{\text { Mass of } \mathrm{CO}_2}{\text { Mass of the organic compound }}\) × 100

Question 31.
Why is it necessary to use acetic acid and not sulphuric acid for acidification of sodium extract for testing sulphur by lead acetate test ?
Answer:
Sulphuric acid is a powerful oxidising agent; it may oxidise Na2S present in sodium extract to sodium sulphate and then we will not be able to get the nitroprusside test of sulphur while if acidification done by using acetic acid the formed product lead acetate is soluble and do not interfere with the test.

Question 32.
An organic compound contains 69% carbon and 4.8% hydrogen, the remainder being oxygen. Calculate the masses of carbon dioxide and water produced when 0.20 g of this substance is subjected to complete combustion.
Answer:
100 g of organic compound contains 69 g of carbon
∴ 0.2 g of organic compound contains \(\frac{69}{100}\) × 0.2 g carbon = 0.138 g of carbon
Now we know that:
12 g of carbon gives = 44 g of CO2
∴ 0.138 g of carbon gives = \(\frac{44}{12}\) × 0.138g of CO2 = \(\frac{6.072}{12}\) g = 0.506 g
Also, 100 g of organic compound contains = 4.8 g of hydrogen
∴ 0.2 g of organic compound contains = \(\frac{4.8}{100}\) × 0.2 g of hydrogen = 0.0096 g of hydrogen
2 g of hydrogen gives = 18 g of H2O
∴ 0.0096 g of hydrogen gives = \(\frac{18}{2}\) × 0.0096 g of H2O = 0.0864 g

Question 33.
A sample of 0.50 g of an organic compound was treated according to Kjeldahl’s method. The ammonia evolved was absorbed in 50 mL of 0.5 M H2SO4. The residual acid required 60 mL of 0.5 M solution NaOH for neutralisation. Find the percentage composition of nitrogen in the compound.
Answer:
Mass of organic compound taken = 0. 50 g
Volume of 0.5 M of H2SO4 solution = 50 mL
Volume of NaOH of 0.5 M required for neutralisation of residual acid
= 60 mL = 30 mL of 0.5 M of H2SO4
Volume of 0.5 M of H2SO4 used for absorbing NH3 = (50 – 30) mL or 20 mL of 0.5 M of H2SO4
Now, 20 mL of 0.5 M of H2SO4 = 40 mL of 0.5 M of NH3 or 20 mL of 1 M of NH3
1000 mL of 1 M of NH3 contains 17 g ammonia or 14 g of Nitrogen
20 mL of 1 M NH3 contains = \(\frac{20}{1000}\) × 14 = 0.28 g of nitrogen
∴ Nitrogen in 0.5 g of organic substance = 0.28 g
or Percentage of Nitrogen = \(\frac{0.28}{0.5}\) × 100 = 56

Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 8

Question 34.
0.3780 g of an organic chloro compound gave 0.5740 g of silver chloride in Carius estimation. Calculate the percentage of chlorine present in the compound.
Answer:
Using the relation :
Percentage of chlorine = \(\frac{35.5}{01435}\) × \(\frac{\text { Mass of } \mathrm{AgCl} \text { formed }}{\text { Mass of the substance taken }}\) × 100
Given, Mass of AgCl formed = 0.5740 g
Mass of organic chioro compound taken = 0.3780 g
Substituting the values in the equation above, we get
= \(\frac{35.5}{143.5} \) × \(\frac{0.5740}{0.3780}\) = 37.566%

Question 35.
In the estimation of sulphur by Carius method, 0.468 g of an organic sulphur compound afforded 0.668 g of barium sulphate. Find out the percentage of sulphur in the given compound.
Answer:
Percentage of sulphur in an organic compound is given by
%S = \(\frac{32}{233}\) × \(\frac{\text { Mass of } \mathrm{BaSO}_4 \text { formed }}{\text { Mass of compound taken }}\) × 100
%S = \(\frac{32}{233}\) × \(\frac{0.668}{0.468}\) × 100 = 19.60

Question 36.
In the organic compound CH2 = CH – CH2 – CH2 – C ≡ CH, the pair of hydridised orbitals involved in the formation of C2 – C3 bond is :
a) sp-sp2
b) sp-sp3
c) sp2-sp3
d) sp3 = sp3
Answer:
(c) sp2-sp3

Question 37.
In the Lassaigne’s test for nitrogen in an organic compound, the Prussian blue colour is obtained due to the formation of
a) Na4[Fe(CN)6]
b) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3
c) Fe2[Fe(CN)6]
d) Fe3[Fe(CN)6]4
Answer:
b) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3

Question 38.
Which of the following carbocation is most stable ?
a) (CH3)3C.\(\stackrel{ \pm}{\mathbf{C}}\)H2
b) (CH3)3\(\stackrel{+}{\mathrm{C}}\)
c) CH3CH2\(\stackrel{+}{\mathbf{C}}\)H2
d) CH3\(\stackrel{+}{\mathrm{C}}\)HCH2CH3
Answer:
b) (CH3)3\(\stackrel{+}{\mathrm{C}}\). This is because order of stability of carbocations is 3° > 2° > 1°.

Question 39.
The best and latest technique for isolation, purification and separation of organic compounds is
a) Crystallisation
b) Distillation
c) Sublimation
d) Chromatography
Answer:
(d) Chromatography

Question 40.
The reaction : CH3CH2I + KOH(aq) → CH3CH2OH + KI is classified as,
a) electrophilic substitution
b) nucleophilic substitution
c) elimination
d) addition
Answer:
(b) Nucleophilic substitution. In this reaction the nucleophile I– is replaced by the nucleophile OH–.

Articles Inter 1st Year English Grammar

For systematic learning, students can include AP Inter 1st Year English Study Material and Articles in English Inter 1st Year in their daily study routine.

AP Inter 1st Year English Articles with Answers

  • ‘A, an and the’ are called articles.
  • They are basically adjectives.
  • ‘A/an’ is the ‘Indefinite Article’.
  • The’ is the Definite Article.

(A) THE USE OF THE INDEFINITE ARTICLE

The basic meaning of the Indefinite Article is ‘one’. Therefore, it can be used only before the singular countable nouns. The Definite Article, on the other hand, can be used before the singular or plural countable nouns and even before the uncountable nouns.

When to use a’ or ‘an’ depends on the sound, not the letter that begins the following word. An’ is used before words that begin with a vowel sound. A’ is used before words that begin with a consonant sound. Pronunciation plays the key role in deciding the use of ‘a’ / ‘an’. Both of them are used with the same basic meaning, i.e. one.

Some examples of the use of ‘a’ and ‘an’,:

  • a pen
  • a choice
  • a building
  • an employee
  • an oak tree
  • an interesting story
  • a university
  • a universal rule
  • a European
  • a union leader
  • a one-eyed man
  • a one-act play
  • an hour
  • an honest man
  • an honourable teacher
  • a humble man
  • a hint
  • a humorous event
  • an ISI product
  • an M.A.
  • an SBI document
  • an MP
  • a SAARC country (సార్క్)
  • a NATO member (న్యాటో)
  • an umbrella
  • an accident
  • an Italian
  • an eel
  • an egg
  • an eye
  • an old man
  • an owl
  • an OMR sheet
  • an NGO

Articles Inter 1st Year English Grammar

The indefinite article a/an is used :

1. in the sense of’a certain’.
(ఎదో ఒక అనే అర్థంతో)
A man came to see my dad.
There is an apple.

2. to represent a class’
(ఒక వర్గాన్ని తెలుపుటకు)
A peacock is a colourful bird.
An ant is a social animal.

3. in its basic sense of ‘one’
Three feet make a yard.
She needs a one-hundred-rupee note.
(Note that ‘o’ in ‘one’ is a vowel letter but here sounds as a consonant. Hence ‘a’, not an .)

4. in the sense of every, at the rate of, in the ratio of, etc.’
(ప్రతి, ఈ లెక్కన, ఈ నిష్పత్తిలో అనే అర్థంతో)
He pays as rent Rs. 3,000 a month.
The machine purifies 10 litres of water an hour.
Three times a month, ten rupees a piece, five kilometers a minute.

5. Before a proper noun to show that the speaker knows that man only by name.
(మాట్లాడేవారికి ఆ వ్యక్తి పేరు తప్ప ఇంక ఏమీ తెలియదనుటకు proper noun ముందు)
A Mr. Raghu is on phone.
(చెబుతున్న వ్యక్తి కి రఘు గురించి ఏమి తెలియదు)

6. in the sense of the same (ఒకటే అని అర్థంతో)
Birds of a feather flock together.

7. before a proper noun used as a common noun (ఒక proper noun ను దేనికి ప్రసిద్ధో ‘ఆ లక్షణములు గల’ అనే అర్థంతో common noun గా వాడినప్పుడు)
She thinks she is a Shakuntala Devi.
(Note: ఇదే అర్థంతో ‘time’, ‘space’ specifications ఉన్నట్లయితే అక్కడ ‘the’ వాడాలి. Indefinite article కాదు.)
He feels he is a Sachin. (No ‘time’ or space’ modification).
He is the Sachin of our college, (of – college – space specification. Hence the.)

8. before the name of a profession, a trade, an occupation, a class, a religion (వృత్తి, వ్యాపార, వ్యాపక, వర్గ, మత మొదలగువాని పేర్ల ముందు) a clerk, a lawyer, an actor, a farmer, a Hindu

9. in exclamations like (ఆశ్చర్యార్థకాలలో)
What a beautiful sight!

10. idiomatically
a little, a few (to make them mean positive.)
many an accident, such a person.

(B) THE USE OF THE DEFINITE ARTICLE

The Definite Article is used

1. Before a noun whose identity is clear,
e.g.: The weather is fine.
What is the time ?

2. Before a singular noun representing the whole class.
[మొత్తం జాతికి చెందిన ఏకవచన నామవాచకాలకు ముందు]
e.g.: The cow is a useful animal.
The lion is the king of all animals.

3. Before a noun which is unique or one of its kind.
[ఒకే ఒకటిగా నన్ను పేర్లముందు]
e.g.: the earth, the sky

4. Before the names of rivers. [నదుల పేర్లు ముందు]
e.g.: the Godavari, the Nile, the Mississippi, etc.

5. Before the names of oceans and seas.
[మహాసముద్రాలు, సముద్రాల పేర్ల ముందు]
e.g.: the Arabian sea, the Indian ocean, the Caspian sea

6. Before the names of gulfs and canals.
[అగాధముల, కాలువల పేర్ల ముందు]
e.g.: the Persian gulf; the Gulf of Mannar
the Suez canal; the Panama canal

7. Before the names of mountain ranges.
[పర్వత వరుసల పేర్ల ముందు]
e.g.: the Alps, the Himalayas, the Vindhyas

8. Before the names of holy books.
[పవిత్ర గ్రంథాల పేర్ల ముందు]
e.g.: the Bible, the Ramayana, the Koran

9. Before the names of musical instruments.
[సంగీత వాయిద్యాల పేర్ల ముందు]
e.g.: the violin, the guitar, the drum, the harmonium, etc.

10. Before a Proper Noun when it is qualified by an adjective.
[విశేషణముచే నిర్దేశింపబడిన నమాచకాల ముందు]
e.g.: the great Shakespeare
the immortal Kalidas, etc.

11. Before the names of inventions, human body and articles of clothing.
[కనిపెట్టబడిన వస్తువుల, మానవ శరీర అంగాల మరియు దుస్తుల ముందు]
e.g.: Who invented the microscope?
He was hit on the head.
The shirt is blue in colour.

12. Before the names of groups of islands.
[దీవుల సముదాయాల పేర్ల ముందు]
e.g.: the Maldives, the Andamans, the Carribean islands.

13. Before comparatives when they are used in a special way.
[ప్రత్యేకమైన Comparative degree లోని పదాల ముందు]
e.g.: The higher you climb, the better the view.
The more you work, the more you get.

14. Before the superlative degree.
[Superlative degrees లో]
e.g.: Sarala is the tallest girl in the class.
This is the most beautiful flower here.

15. Before Comparative degree when one of the items is singled out.
[Comparative degree లో రెండు విషయాలలో ఒకదాని గురించి ప్రత్యేకంగా చెప్పేటప్పుడు]
e.g.: Of Bengaluru and Hyderabad, Bengaluru is the cooler.

16. Before nouns denoting units of measurement.
[తూనికల విషయంలో ]
e.g.: Now we are buying water by the litre.

17. Before Adjectives used as Nouns.
[విశేషణాలను నామవాచకాలుగా వాడినప్పుడు]
e.g.: The brave deserve the praise.
The rich are not always happy.

18. Before abbreviations.
[సంకేతాక్షరాల ముందు]
e.g.: the C.B.I., the U.S.A., the U.N.E.S.C.O.

19. Before the names of ships, public buildings, aeroplanes, hotels, etc.
e.g.: Ships : the Viceroy, the Vikranth
Public buildings : the Secretariat, the Parliament House
Hotels : the Oberio Sheraton, the Taj
Aeroplanes : the Kanishka, the Ashoka, etc.

20. Before words like middle, top, end, first, next, centre, etc.
e.g.: the middle order, the top floor,
at the end, the first child,
the next train, in the centre.

Articles Inter 1st Year English Grammar

(C) WHERE NO ARTICLE IS USED

1. No article is used before the branches of knowledge.
[విద్య లేక జ్ఞాన సంబంధ విషయాల ముందు ఎటువంటి Article నుపయోగింపరాదు.]
e.g.: English (not the English)
Geology (not the Geology)

2. No article is used before the names of days, months and seasons.
[దినముల, నెలల ఋతువుల పేర్ల ముందు ఎటువంటి Article నుపయోగింపరాదు.]
e.g.: Sunday is a holiday. (Not the Sunday)
If winter comes, can spring be far behind ? (Not the winter, not the spring)

3. No article is used before nouns in certain phrases.
[కొన్ని phrases లోని నామవాచకాల ముందు ఏ విధమైన Article నుపయోగింపరాదు.]
e.g.: by air (not by the air)
over hill and dale (not over the hill or the dale)

4. Don’t use any article before the names of games.
[ఆతల పేర్ల ముందు ఏ విధమైన article నుపయోగింపరాదు.]
e.g.: I play hockey, (not the hockey)
Chess is a fine game, (not the chess)

5. No article is used before collective nouns.
[సామూహిక నామవాచకాల ముందు ఏ విధమైన article నుపయోగింపరాదు.]
e.g.: Mankind loves nature, (not the mankind)
We are members of society, (not the society)

6. No article is used before a Common Noun used in the vocative case.
[సంబోధనాత్మక నామవాచకాల ముందు ఎటువంటి article నుపయోగింపరాదు.]
e.g,: King Arthur ……. (not the King Arthur)
General Ajay ………… (not the General Ajay)

7. In certain phrases consisting of a preposition, no article is placed.
[కొన్ని phrases లో విభక్తి ప్రత్యయముల ముందు ఏ విధమైన article నుపయోగింపరాదు.]
e.g.: on foot ………. (not on the foot)
by train ……….. (not by the train)
on account of ………. (not on the account of)

8. Don’t use any article before the names of substances.
[పదార్ధాల పేర్ల ముందు ఏ విధమైన article నుపయోగింపరాదు.]
e.g.: Gold is a precious metal, (not the gold)

9. No article is used before the nouns such as school, college, hospital, prison when they are referred to for their primary purpose,
[school/college, hospital, prison మొదలగు పదాలు వాటి ఆశయాన్ని నిర్దేశిస్తుంటే ఏ విధమైన article నుపయోగింపరాదు.]
e.g.: He likes to go to school, (not the school)
She went to hospital, (not the hospital)
The culprit was put in prison, (not the prison or not a prison)

10. Don’t use any article before the names of diseases.
[వ్యాధుల పేర్ల ముందు ఏ విధమైన article నుపయోగింపరాదు.]
e.g.: She has diabetes, (not the diabetes)
He has been suffering from flu. (not the flu).

Exercises For Practice

1. Fill in the blanks using A / An.

Question 1.
______________ boy
Answer:
a

Question 2.
______________ hour
Answer:
an

Question 3.
______________ European
Answer:
a

Question 4.
______________ elephant
Answer:
an

Question 5.
______________ Irishman
Answer:
an

Question 6.
______________ car
Answer:
a

Question 7.
______________ Indian
Answer:
an

Question 8.
______________ zoo
Answer:
a

Question 9.
______________ orphan
Answer:
an

Question 10.
______________ IAS Officer
Answer:
an

Articles Inter 1st Year English Grammar

Question 11.
______________ humble dog
Answer:
a

Question 12.
______________ unhappy man
Answer:
an

Question 13.
______________ igloo
Answer:
an

Question 14.
______________ one rupee
Answer:
a

Question 15.
______________ broken egg
Answer:
a

Question 16.
______________ idiot
Answer:
an

Question 17.
______________ ostrich
Answer:
an

Question 18.
______________ owl
Answer:
an

Question 19.
______________ old lady
Answer:
an

Question 20.
______________ alien
Answer:
an

Question 21.
______________ uniform
Answer:
a

Question 22.
______________ SBI branch
Answer:
an

Question 23.
______________ RD account
Answer:
an

Question 24.
______________ 8-year-old child
Answer:
an

Question 25.
______________ four storey building
Answer:
a

Articles Inter 1st Year English Grammar

2. Fill in the blanks with the respective rule number of article THE.

A Journey through India

The Indian Peninsula ______________ (1) is rich and diverse, stretching from the majestic mountain ranges of the Himalayas and the Nilgiris ______________ (2) to the serene island groups of the Andaman and the Lakshadweep ______________ (3). It is surrounded by the Indian Ocean, the Arabian Sea, and the Bay of Bengal ______________ (4). From the vast expanse of the Thar Desert ______________ (5) verdant jungles of the Sundarbans ______________ (6) its beauty is boundless. This land is blessed with the rolling waters of rivers like the Ganges, the Krishna, and the Godavari, ______________ (7) and the soothing breezes of the Kashmir Valley in the north and the Silent Valley in the south ______________ (8) & ______________ (9). People here read the Gita the Bible and the Quran ______________ (10).
Answers:
1. Rule 4 – iii (d)
2. Rule 4 – iii (a)
3. Rule 4 – iii (b)
4. Rule 4 – iii (c)
5. Rule 4 – iii (d)
6. Rule 4 – iii (d)
7. Rule 4 – iii (c)
8. Rule 4 – iii (d)
9. Rule 10
10. Rule – 9 (b)

Note : Students are advised to refer to textbook for rules regarding Definite Article ‘The’.

3. Fill in the blanks with the respective rule number of article THE.

A Journey of India

India is not a federation like the United States nor is it a union like the European Union; it isn’t even a monarchy like the Kingdom of Bhutan ______________ (1).

It is a land of the humble and the friendly, ______________ (2) home to the most ancient civilization on the earth ______________ (3).

We welcomed the French, the Dutch, the Portuguese and many to our shores. But when the English oppressed us we used English to fight back ______________ (4).

Then we elected the president of India rejecting the queen of Britain. ______________ (5)
Answers:
1. Rule 8
2. Rule 5
3. Rule 4 (i)
4. Rule 7
5. Rule 4(ii)
Note : Students are advised to refer to textbook on Page for rules regarding Definite Article ‘The’.

4. Tick the nouns before which the definite article can be used.

Question 1.
Best idea Articles Inter 1st Year English Grammar 1
Answer:
Articles Inter 1st Year English Grammar 2

Question 2.
South Pole Articles Inter 1st Year English Grammar 1
Answer:
Articles Inter 1st Year English Grammar 2

Question 3.
Elephant Articles Inter 1st Year English Grammar 1
Answer:
Articles Inter 1st Year English Grammar 2

Question 4.
School Articles Inter 1st Year English Grammar 1
Answer:
Articles Inter 1st Year English Grammar 2

Question 5.
Italians Articles Inter 1st Year English Grammar 1
Answer:
Articles Inter 1st Year English Grammar 2

Question 6.
Moon Articles Inter 1st Year English Grammar 1
Answer:
Articles Inter 1st Year English Grammar 2

Question 7.
Nile Articles Inter 1st Year English Grammar 1
Answer:
Articles Inter 1st Year English Grammar 2

Question 8.
Uniform Articles Inter 1st Year English Grammar 1
Answer:
Articles Inter 1st Year English Grammar 2

Question 9.
Hindu Paper Articles Inter 1st Year English Grammar 1
Answer:
Articles Inter 1st Year English Grammar 2

Question 10.
Philippines Articles Inter 1st Year English Grammar 1
Answer:
Articles Inter 1st Year English Grammar 2

Articles Inter 1st Year English Grammar

5. Fill in the blanks using ‘a’ / ‘an’ / ‘the’.

Question 1.
A : What’s wrong ?
B : I have ________ bad headache.
Answer:
a

Question 2.
A : Why was today’s class cancelled ?
B : Because ________ teacher is sick.
Answer:
the

Question 3.
A : What does he do ?
B : He’s ________ engineer.
Answer:
an

Question 4.
A : What did Sarala buy ?
B : She bought ________ new camera.
Answer:
a

Question 5.
A : How long does it take to get there ?
B : It takes about ________ hour.
Answer:
an

Question 6.
A : I want to change the channel.
B : OK, ________ remote control is over there.
Answer:
the

Question 7.
A : Have you been to the North Pole ?
B : No. but I’ve been to ________ South Pole.
Answer:
the

Question 8.
A : Where does Jhansi live ?
B : On ________ third floor in that apartment.
Answer:
the

Articles Inter 1st Year English Grammar

6. Rewrite the sentences using the correct article wherever necessary.

Question 1.
Mrs Swetha is good teacher.
Answer:
Mrs Swetha is a good teacher.

Question 2.
Our Sports Day is on fourth of May.
Answer:
Our Sports Day is on the fourth of May.

Question 3.
He was Chief Engineer who built this ship.
Answer:
He was the Chief Engineer who built this ship.

Question 4.
Dog was limping.
Answer:
The dog was limping.

Question 5.
Revant had pictures of ape and panda.
Answer:
Revant had pictures of an ape and a panda.

Question 6.
He is excellent painter.
Answer:
He is an excellent painter.

Question 7.
Manager of SBI is my uncle.
Answer:
The Manager of SBI is my uncle.

Question 8.
River Ganga is in India.
Answer:
The River Ganga is in India.

Question 9.
Water in our school tank has become polluted.
Answer:
The water in our school tank has become polluted.

Question 10.
Kalyan is best batsman of the team.
Answer:
Kalyan is the best batsman of the team.

Articles Inter 1st Year English Grammar

7. Tick the correct articles to complete the passage.

In (a / an) quiet residential area, I saw (a / an) old house. The handle on (a / the) front door came off at the slightest touch. (A / The) living room was musty and damp. (An / The) attic had a mountain of rubbish. Everything was in (a / the) mess. Then I walked into (a / the) kitchen. It had (an / the) interesting window through which (a / the) sun’s rays came in. I realized that I had found (a / the) house of my dreams.
Answer:
In a quiet residential area, I saw’ an old house. The handle on the front door came off at the slightest touch. The living room was musty and damp. The attic had a mountain of rubbish. Everything was in a mess. Then 1 walked into the kitchen. It had an interesting window through which the sun’s rays came in. 1 realized that I had found the house of my dreams.

8. Champion’s Corner

Your friend needs your help in finishing the letter. Use articles in the blanks wherever necessary.

Dear Friend,
Sorry I didn’t message you sooner to tell you about ______________ (1) trip, but I’ve been quite busy with a lot of things since we returned. We had ______________ (2) amazing time in ______________ (3) Araku Valley. Although this was my first time visiting ______________ (4) place, I can confidently say that it is one of ______________ (5) most vibrant and culturally rich places in ______________ (6) country.

We started our journey from ______________ (7) Visakhapatnarn, just as you suggested. It’s such a beautiful coastal city. I’m so glad you recommended that we visit ______________ (8) famous Kailasagiri Hill for ______________ (9) panoramic view of the coastline. While enjoying ______________ (10) breathtaking scenery, we met ______________ (11) local who runs a traditional guesthouse near ______________ (112) Araku, He offered us to stay at his place for ______________ (13) few days, so we rented ______________ (14) car and took ______________ (15) scenic drive through ______________ (16) Eastern Ghats, spending our time exploring ______________ (17) lush hills and coffee plantations of Araku. What ______________ (18) memorable experience!
Take care,
Sri
Answers:
1. the
2. an
3. the
4. the
5. the
6. the
7. No article
8. the
9. a
10. the
11. a
12. No article
13. a
14. a
15. a
16. the
17. the
18. a

Articles Inter 1st Year English Grammar

Exercises

1. Fill in the blanks with ‘A’/ ‘An’/ ‘The’/ ‘No article’.

Question 1.
Janu is eating ________ icecream.
Answer:
an

Question 2.
You said that he was ________ well-known player.
Answer:
a

Question 3.
________ Sugar isn’t good for health.
Answer:
No article

Question 4.
Would you like ________ orange or a banana?
Answer:
an

Question 5.
Amrita wants to be ________ journalist after studies.
Answer:
a

Question 6.
________ idea can change your life.
Answer:
An

Question 7.
What ________ interesting story!
Answer:
an

Question 8.
Swetha spends most of her time watching ________ T.V.
Answer:
No article

Question 9.
Write your name at ________ top of the page.
Answer:
the

Question 10.
Does anyone have ________ cellphone?
Answer:
a

Articles Inter 1st Year English Grammar

Question 11.
Sita is learning to play ________ piano.
Answer:
the

Question 12.
The sky is blue and ________ sun is shining.
Answer:
the

Question 13.
I need to make ________ emergency phone call.
Answer:
an

Question 14.
Excuse me, where is ________ nearest bank?
Answer:
the

Question 15.
________ Children love to play.
Answer:
No article

Question 16.
Our apartment is on ________ second floor.
Answer:
the

Question 17.
This work cannot be done in ________ day.
Answer:
a

Question 18.
What ________ memorable day !
Answer:
a

Question 19.
________ blind should be respected.
Answer:
The

Question 20.
I saw ________ cat you were talking about.
Answer:
the

Articles Inter 1st Year English Grammar

Question 21.
The company is making ________ app now.
Answer:
an

Question 22.
________ Knowledge is power.
Answer:
No article

Question 23.
I drive ________ four wheeler every day.
Answer:
a

Question 24.
Praveen is ____________ NSS Volunteer.
Answer:
an

Question 25.
The best coffee seeds are grown near ____________ Equator.
Answer:
the

Question 26.
____________ Mumbai is a major global city.
Answer:
No article

Question 27.
The taecher is waiting for ____________ answer from the student.
Answer:
an

Question 28.
She visited ________ Eiffel Tower in Paris.
Answer:
the

Question 29.
How much is ____________ loaf of bread ?
Answer:
a

Question 30.
I have ____________ fifty rupee note. Is it enough ?
Answer:
a

Question 31.
____________ Mahabharata is considered the largest epic poem.
Answer:
The

Question 32.
It is not ____________ easy thing to do.
Answer:
an

Question 33.
He will reach there within ____________ hour.
Answer:
an

Question 34.
I helped ____________ one-eyed beggar on the way.
Answer:
a

Question 35.
I have two sisters and ____________ brother.
Answer:
a

Articles Inter 1st Year English Grammar

2. Fill in the blanks with suitable articles “a/an/the” or “no article”.

Question 1.
I thought it was ____________ interesting case.
Answer:
an

Question 2.
I sat for ____________ while frozen with horror.
Answer:
a

Question 3.
He told ____________ teller that he didn’t want anything.
Answer:
the

Question 4.
The next morning, Jimmy took ____________ breakfast at the Adamses.
Answer:
the

Question 5.
He gave ____________ grunt of helplessness.
Answer:
a

Question 6.
It crashed upon ____________ dead beast with finality.
Answer:
the

3. Fill in the blanks with suitable articles “a/an/the” or “no article”.

Question 1.
____________ idea can change your life.
Answer:
An

Question 2.
____________ woman in blue saree is my English teacher.
Answer:
The

Question 3.
Children go to ____________ school.
Answer:
No article

Question 4.
She told ____________ interesting story.
Answer:
an

Question 5.
____________ Iron is a useful material.
Answer:
No article

Question 6.
He is ____________ best batsman of the team.
Answer:
the

Permutations and Combinations MCQ AP Inter 1st Year Maths Chapter 6

Practice AP Inter 1st Year Maths Study Material Chapter 6 Permutations and Combinations MCQ to identify your strengths and weak areas.

AP Inter 1st Year Maths Permutations and Combinations MCQ

Question 1.
A student has 5 pants and 8 shirts. The number of ways in which he can wear the dress in different combinations as
1) 8P5
2) 8C5
3) 8! × 5!
4) 40
Answer:
4) 40

Explanation:
Student can select a pant from 5 pants in 5 ways and a shirt from 8 shirts in 8 ways.
∴ The number of ways he can wear the dress in different combinations = 5 × 8 = 40.

Question 2.
If nP4 = 1680 then n is
1) 7
2) 8
3) 9
4) 10
Answer:
2) 8

Explanation:
nP4 = 1680 = 8 × 7 × 6 × 5
∴ n = 8

Question 3.
If nPr = 1320, then r is
1) 3
2) 4
3) 5
4) 6
Answer:
1) 3

Explanation:
nPr = 1320 = 12 × 11 × 10
∴ r = 3

Question 4.
A man has 3 sons and 6 schools within his reach. In how many ways he can send his sons to school if no two of his sons are to read in the same school ?
1) 6P3
2) 6P3
3) 63
4) 36
Answer:
1) 6P3

Explanation:
The number of ways that he can send his 3 sons to 6 schools if no two of then are in the same school = 6P3

Permutations and Combinations MCQ AP Inter 1st Year Maths Chapter 6

Question 5.
The number of arrangements that can be formed by talking all the letters {T, U, E, S, D. A, Y}
1) 720
2) 5040
3) 120
4) 40320
Answer:
2) 5040

Explanation:
The number of required arrangements = 7! = 5040

Question 6.
The number of arrangements that can be made out of the letters in expresesion a4b3c5 when written in full length is
1) \(\frac{9!}{3!2!4!}\)
2) \(\frac{7!}{2!3!2!}\)
3) \(\frac{5!}{4!3!2!}\)
4) \(\frac{(12)!}{4!3!5!}\)
Answer:
4) \(\frac{(12)!}{4!3!5!}\)

Explanation:
The required number of arrangements = \(\frac{(12)!}{4!3!5!}\)

Question 7.
The number of permutations of 4-digit numbers that can be formed using the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 when repitition allowed is
1) 6P4
2) 6C4
3) 64
4) 46
Answer:
3) 64

Explanation:
The number fo 4-digit numbers formed = 64.

Question 8.
The number of ways of arranging 8 men and 4 women in a row is
1) 8!
2) 4!
3) (12)!
4) (11)!
Answer:
3) (12)!

Explanation:
The number of ways of arranging 8 men and 4 women in a row = 12!

Question 9.
The number of positive divisors of 1080 is
1) 8
2) 16
3) 32
4) 40
Answer:
3) 32

Explanation:
1080 = 23 × 33 × 51 ⇒ The number of positive divisors of 1080 is
(3 + 1) (3 + 1) (1 + 1) = 32.

Question 10.
The number of ways of selecting 4 boys and 3 girls from a group of 8 boys and 5 girls is
1) 8C4 + 5C3
2) 8C4 × 5C3
3) 8C3 – 5C3
4) None
Answer:
2) 8C4 × 5C3

Explanation:
The number of ways of selecting 4 boys and 3 girls from a group of 8 boys and 5 girls is 8C4 × 5C3

Question 11.
If 12Cs+1 = 12C2s-5 then the value of S is
1) 4
2) 8
3) 12
4) 6
Answer:
4) 6

Explanation:
12Cs+1 = 12C2s-5 ⇒ S + 1 = 2S – 5 or S + 1 + 2S – 5 = 12
S = 6 or 3S = 16
S = 6 [∵ S is a non-negative integer]

Question 12.
The number of diagonals of a polygon of 10 sides is
1) 35
2) 36
3) 38
4) 39
Answer:
1) 35

Explanation:
Number of diagonals of a polygon of 10 sides = \(\frac{10(10-3)}{2}\) = 35

Permutations and Combinations MCQ AP Inter 1st Year Maths Chapter 6

Question 13.
A polygon has 54 diagonals. Then the number of its sides is
1) 7
2) 9
3) 10
4) 12
Answer:
4) 12

Explanation:
If the number of sides is 4 then the number of diagonals
\(\frac{\mathrm{n}(\mathrm{n}-3)}{2}\) = 54
⇒ n = 12.

AP Inter 1st Year Maths Exercise 6e Solutions

Referring to the AP Inter 1st Year Maths Study Material Chapter 6 Permutations and Combinations Exercise 6e Solutions makes it easier to understand complex problems.

AP Inter 1st Year Maths Permutations and Combinations Solutions Exercise 6e

I.

Question 1.
A committee of 7 has to be formed from 9 boys and 4 girls. In how many ways can this be done when the committee consists of i) exactly 3 girls ii) atleast 3 girls iii) atmost 3 girls.
Solution:
A committee of 7 has to be formed from 9 boys and 4 girls.
i) Since exactly 3 girls are to be there in every committee. Each committee must consist of (7 – 3) = 4 boys only.
Thus, in this case, required number of ways
= 4C3 × 9C4
= \(\frac{4!}{3!1!} \times \frac{9!}{4!5!}\)
= 4 × \(\frac{9 \times 8 \times 7 \times 6 \times 5!}{4 \times 3 \times 2 \times 1 \times 5!}\)
= 508

ii) Since atleast 3 girls are to be there in every committee. The committee can consist of
a) 3 girls and 4 boys
b) 4 girls and 3 boys
3 girls and 4 boys can be selected in 4C3 × 9C4 ways.
4 girls and 3 boys can be selected in 4C2 × 9C5 ways.
Therefore, in this case, required number of ways.
= 4C3 × 9C4 + 4C4 × 9C3
= 504 + 84
= 588
Therefore, in this case, required number of ways.
= 4C3 × 9C4 + 4C4 × 9C3
= 504 + 84
= 588

iii) Since atmost 3 girls are to be there in every committee. The committee can consist of
a) 3 girls and 4 boys
b) 2 girls and 5 boys
c) 1 girl and 6 boys
d) No girl and 7 boys
3 girls and 4 boys can be selected in 4C3 × 9C4 ways.
2 girls and 5 boys can be selected in 4C2 × 9C5
1 girl and 6 boys can be selected in 4C1 × 9C6
No girl and 7 boys can be selected in 4C0 × 9C7 ways.
Therefore, in this case, required number of ways.
= 4C3 × 9C4 + 4C2 × 9C5 + 4C1 × 9C6 + 4C0 × 9C7
= \(\frac{4!}{3!1!} \times \frac{9!}{4!5!}+\frac{4!}{2!2!} \times \frac{9!}{5!4!}+\frac{4!}{1!3!} \times \frac{9!}{6!3!}+\frac{4!}{0!4!} \times \frac{9!}{7!2!}\)
= 504 + 756 + 336 + 36
= 1632

AP Inter 1st Year Maths Exercise 6e Solutions

Question 2.
It is required to seat 5 .men and 4 women in a row so that the women occupy the even places. How many such arrangements are possible ?
Solution:
5 men and 4 women are to be seated in a row such that the women occupy the even places.
The 5 men can be seated in 5! ways = M × M × M × M × M.
Therefore, the women can be seated in 4! ways.
Hence, possible number of arrangements = 4! × 5! = 24 × 120 = 2880.

Question 3.
In how many ways can be letters of the word ASSASSINATION be arranged so that all the S’s are together ?
Solution:
In the given word ASSASSINATION, the letter A appear 3 times.
S appears 4 times, I appear 2 times, N appears 2 times, and all the other letters appear only once.
Since all the words have to be arranged in such a way that all the ‘S’ are together, SSSS is treated as a single objects for the time being. This single object together with the remaining 9 objects will account for 10 objects.
The number of arrangements of 10 objects in which there are 3’A’, 2T and 2’N’.
\(\frac{10!}{3!2!2!}=\frac{10 \times 9 \times 8 \times 7 \times 6 \times 5 \times 4 \times 3!}{3!\times 2 \times 1 \times 2 \times 1}\) = 151200.
Hence, the required number of ways of arranging the letters of the given word is 151200.

II.

Question 1.
How many words, with or without meaning, each of 2 vowels and 3 consonants can be formed from the letters of the word DAUGHTER?
Solution:
In the word DAUGHTER, there are 3 vowels namely A, U and E and 5 consonants, namely D, G, H, T and R.
Number of ways of selecting 2 vowels out of 3 vowels = 3C2 = 3.
Number of ways of selecting 3 consonants out of 5 consonants = 5C3 =10. Therefore, number of combinations of 2 vowels and 3 consonants = 3 × 10 = 30.
Each of these 30 combinations of 2 vowels and 3 consonants can be arranged among themselves in 5! ways.
Hence, required number of different words = 30 × 5! = 3600.

Question 2.
How many words, with or without meaning, can be formed using all the letters of the word EQUATION at a time so that the vowels and consonants occur together ?
Solution:
In the word EQUATION, there are 5 vowels, namely, A, E, I, O and U and 3 consonants namely Q, T and N.
Since all the vowels and consonants have to occur together, both (AEIOU) and (QTN) can be assumed as single objects. Then, the permutations of these 2 objects taken all at a time are counted.
This number would be 2P2 = 2!
Corresponding to each of these permutations, there are 5! Permutations of the 5 vowels taken all at a time and 3! Permutations of the 3 consonants taken all at a time.
Hence, by multiplication principle, required number of words = 2! × 5! × 3! = 1440.

Question 3.
If the different permutations of all the letters of the word EXAMINATION are listed in a dictionary, how many words are there in this list before first word start with E ?
Solution:
In the given word EXAMINATION there are 11 letters out of which A, I and N appear 2 times and all the other letters appears only once.
The words that will be listed before the word starting with E in a dictionary will be word that start with A. Therefore to get the number of words starting with E in a dictionary will be the words that start with A since there are 2T and 2 ’N’ in the remaining 10 letters.
Number of words starting with A = \(\frac{10!}{2!2!}=\frac{10 \times 9 \times 8 \times 7 \times 6 \times 5 \times 4 \times 3 \times 2!}{2 \times 1 \times 2!}\)
= 907200
Hence, the required number of words are 907200.

Question 4.
How many 6-digit numbers can be formed from the digits 0, 1, 3, 5, 7 and 9 which are divisible by 10 and no digit is repeated ?
Solution:
A number is divisible by 10 if its unit’s digits is 0.
Therefore, 0 is fixed at the unit’s place.
Therefore, there will be as many ways as there are ways of filling 5 vacant places
AP Inter 1st Year Maths Exercise 6e Solutions 1
In succession by the remaining 5 digits (i.e., 1, 3, 5, 7 and 9)
The 5 vacant places can be filled in 5! ways.
Hence, required number of 6-digits = 5! = 120.

Question 5.
The English alphabet has 5 vowels and 21 consonants. How many words with two different vowels and 2 different consonants can be formed from the alphabet?
Solution:
2 different vowels and 2 different consonants are to be selected from the English alphabet.
Since there are 5 vowels in the English alphabet.
Number of ways of selecting 2 different vowels = 5C2 = \(\frac{5!}{2!3!}=\frac{5 \times 4 \times 3!}{2 \times 1 \times 3!}\) = 10
Since there are 21 consonants in the English alphabet.
Number of ways of selecting 2 different consonants from the alphabet
= 21C2 = \(\frac{21!}{2!9!}=\frac{21 \times 20 \times 19!}{2 \times 1 \times 19!}\) = 210
Therefore, number of combinations of 2 different vowels and 2 different consonants = 10 x 210 = 2100
Each of these 2100 combinations has 4 letters which can be arranged among themselves in 4! ways.
Therefore, required number of words = 2100 × 4! = 50400.

III.

Question 1.
In an examination, a question paper consists of 12 questions divided into two parts i.e. part I and part II containing 5 and 7 questions, respectively. A student is required to attempt 8 questions in all, selecting at least 3 from each part. In how many ways can a student select the questions?
Solution:
It is given that the question paper consists of 12 questions divided into two parts – part I and and part II containing 5 and 7 questions, respectively.
A student has to attempts 8 questions at least 3 from each part. This can be done as follows.
a) 3 questions from part I and 5 questions from part II
b) 4 questions from part I and 4 questions from part II
c) 5 questions from part I and 3 questions from part II
3 questios from part I and 5 questions from part II can be selected in 5C3 × 7C4 ways.
4 questions from part I and 4 questions from part II can be selected in 5C4 × 7C4 ways.
5 questions from part I and 3 questions from part II can be selected in 5C5 × 7C2 ways
= 5C3 × 7C4 + 5C4 × 7C4 + 5C5 × 7C2

AP Inter 1st Year Maths Exercise 6e Solutions

Question 3.
From a class of 25 students, 10 are to be chosen for an excursion party. There are 3 students who decide that either all of them will join or none of them will join. In how many ways can the excursion party be chosen ?
Solution:
From the class of 25 students, 10 are to be chosen for an excursion party.
Since there are 3 students who decide that either all of them will join or none of them will join, there are two cases.
Case-I : All of three students join.
Then, 10 students can be chosen from the remaining 22 students 22C7 ways.
Case-II : None of the three students join.
Then, 10 students can be chosen from the remaining 22 students in 22C10 ways. Hence, the required number of ways of choosing the excursion party is 22C7 + 22C10

Thermodynamics Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 5

Regular practice with AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Study Material Chapter 5 Thermodynamics Questions and Answers helps students stay prepared for examinations.

AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry 5th Lesson Thermodynamics Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
According to the third law of thermodynamics which one of the following quantities for a perfectly crystalline solid is zero at absolute zero (- 273.15 °C) ?
1) Gibbs energy
2) Entropy
3) Enthalpy
4) Internal energy
Answer:
2) Entropy
The Entrops of pure and perfectly crystalline substances is zero at absolute zero (0°k).

Question 2.
The heat of combustion of carbon is-393.5 kJ/mol. The enthalpy change in the formation of 35.2g of CO2 from carbon and oxygen gas is
1) -315 kJ
2) + 315 kJ
3) -630 kJ
4)-3.15kJ
Answer:
1) -315 kJ
Thermodynamics Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 5 1

Question 3.
For the reaction. N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3, ∆H = ?
1) ∆U+2RT
2) ∆U – 2RT
3) ∆H = RT
4) ∆U- RT
Solution:
2) ∆U – 2RT
N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3
∆H = ∆U + ∆nRT
∆n = no. of gas products – no. of gas reactants = 2 – (1 + 3) = -2
∆H = ∆U – 2RT

Question 4.
Which amongst the following options is the correct relation between change in enthalpy and change in internal energy?
1) ∆H = ∆U + ∆ngRT
2) ∆H – ∆U – ∆nRT
3) ∆H + ∆U = ∆nR
4) ∆H = ∆U – ∆ngRT
Answer:
1) ∆H = ∆U + ∆ngRT
∆H = ∆U+ ∆n(g), RT is the correct relation

Question 5.
A thermodynamic state function is a quantity
1) used to determine heat changes
2) whose value is independent of path
3) used to determine pressure-volume work
4) whose value depends on temperature only
Answer:
2) whose value is independent of path
State function depends on initial and final states but independent on path.

Thermodynamics Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 5

Question 6.
For the process to occur under adiabatic conditions, the correct condition is
1) ∆T = 0
2) ∆p = 0
3) q = 0
4) w = 0
Answer:
3) q = 0
In adiabatic process no heat is transferred between system and surroundings.
∴ q = 0

Question 7.
The enthalpies of all elements in their standard states are
1) Unity
2) Zero
3) < 0
4) Different for every element
Answer:
2) Zero
Enthalpies of all Elements in their standard states are zero.

Question 8.
The enthalpy of combustion of methane, graphite and dihydrogen at 298 K are – 890.3 kJ/mol, – 393.5 kJ mol-1 and -285.8 kJ mol-1 respectively. Enthalpy of formation of CH4 (g) will be
1) – 74.8kJ mol-1
2) 52.27kJ mol-1
3) + 74.8kJ mol-1
4) – 52.26 kJ mol-1
Solution:
1) – 74.8kJ mol-1
Combustion of methane are CH4(g) + O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(l); ∆H(CH4) = – 890.3kJ/mol
Combustion of graphite, C(S) +O2(g) → CO2(g) ; ∆H(c) = -393 kJ/mol
Combustion of dihydrogen, 2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(l) ; ∆H(H2) =-285.8 kJ/mol
Formation of methane C(S) + 2H2(g) → CH4(g) ; ∆Hf = ?
∆Hf = ∆Hc + 2∆H(H2) – ∆HCH4 = -393 + -2 × (-285.5) – (-890.3 kJ)
= -393 – 575.6 + 890.3 = -74.8 kJ/mol

Question 9.
A reaction, A + B → C + D + qis found to have a positive entropy change. The reaction will be
1) possible at high temperature
2) possible only at low temperature
3) not possible at any temperature
4) possible at any temperature
Answer:
4) possible at any temperature
The given reaction will be possible at any temperature because entropy change is positive and enthalpy change is negative.

Question 10.
Which of the following are not state functions ?
1) work and entropy
2) heat and work
3) entropy and internal energy
4) heat and entropy
Answer:
2) heat and work
Heat and work are not state functions. Both are path functions.

Question 11.
The Gibbs energy change (∆G) at constant temperature is equal to
1) ∆H – TS
2) ∆H + TS
3) ∆H + T∆S
4) ∆H – T∆S
Answer:
∆G = ∆H – T∆S

Question 12.
For the reaction, 2Cl (g) → Cl2 (g) the correct option is
1) ∆rH > 0 and ∆rS < 0
2) ∆H < 0 and ∆S > 0
3) ∆rH < 0 and ∆rS < 0
4) ∆rH > 0 and ∆rS > 0
Answer:
3) ∆rH < 0 and ∆rS < 0
2Cl(g) → Cl2(g)
This reaction is exothermic so ∆H < 0. In the reaction no.of moles decreases (2 → 1) so randomness decreases so ∆S < O
∴ ∆H < O and ∆S < O

Question 13.
Which of the following is not an extensive property?
1) Mass
2) Volume
3) Temperature
4) Enthalpy
Answer:
3) Temperature
Temperature is an intensive property.

Thermodynamics Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 5

Question 14.
The correct thermodynamic conditions for the spontaneous reaction at all temperatures is
1) ∆rH > 0 and ∆rS < 0
2) ∆rH < 0 and ∆rS > 0
3) ∆rH < 0 and ∆rS < 0
4) ∆rH > 0 and ∆rS > 0
Answer:
2) ∆rH < 0 and ∆rS > 0
For a reaction to be spontaneous ∆H < 0 and ∆S > 0

Question 15.
If a process is carried out at constant volume (∆V = 0), the correct expression is
1) ∆U= Q – Pex∆V
2) ∆U = q
3) ∆U = q + Pex∆V
4) ∆U = w
Answer:
2) ∆U = q
∆H = ∆U + P∆V
∆V = 0
∆H = ∆Q + P∆V ∴ ∆U = Q

II. Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
q = w = -Pext (vf – vi) is for irreversible __________ change.
Answer:
For irreversible isothermal change q = w = -Pext (vf – vi)

Question 2.
q = -w = nRT In (vf/vi) is for _______ isothermal change.
Answer:
For reversible isothermal change q = -w = nRT ln\(\left(\frac{V_f}{V_i}\right)\)

Question 3.
For an isolated system, ∆U = 0, the value of AS will be
For an isolated system ∆U = 0, ∆S ≥ 0 (Zero)

Question 4.
In _______ system there is no exchange of matter and energy between the system and surroundings.
Answer:
In isolated system there is no exchange of matter and energy between system and surroundings takes place.

Question 5.
For chemical reactions, _______ is used to measure the value of heat change at constant volume.
Answer:
Bomb calorimeter is used to measure the value of any heat change at constant volume.

III. One Word Answer Questions

Question 1.
Work is done by the system and ‘q’ is the amount of heat is supplied to the system. What type of system would it be?
Answer:
Work is done by the system and ‘q’ is the amount of heat is supplied to the system then it is a closed system.

Question 2.
The system loses ‘q’ amount of heat though no work is done on the system. What type of wall does the system have?
Answer:
The wall is thermally conducting wall.

Question 3.
What is the work done in the free expansion of an ideal gas in reversible and irreversible processes?
Answer:
Work done is zero. No work is done.

Thermodynamics Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 5

Question 4.
In isothermal reversible change of an ideal gas, what is the value of q ?
Answer:
q = 2.303 nRT log\(\left(\frac{\mathrm{V}_2}{\mathrm{~V}_1}\right)\)
Where, n = no. of moles ; R = gas constant; T = Temperature ; V2 = final volume ; V1 = initial volume

Question 5.
For an adiabatic change in an ideal gas what is the relationship between its ∆U and W (adiabatic)?
Answer:
For an adiabatic change in an ideal gas ∆V = w

IV. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define a system.
Answer:
A small part of universe which is taken to study thermodynamics is called a system.

Question 2.
State the first law of thermodynamics.
Answer:
First law of Thermodynamics : Energy can neither be created nor be destroyed. It can transform from one form to another.

Question 3.
State the second law of thermodynamics.
Answer:
2nd law of thermodynamics: All spontaneous processes are thermodynamically irreversible and entropy of system increases.

Question 4.
State the third law of thermodynamics.
Answer:
3rd law of thermodynamics : The Entropy of pure and perfectly crystalline substances is zero at absolute zero (0° K).

Question 5.
What are intensive and extensive properties?
Answer:
Measurable properties of A system may be classified into two types, i) Extensive properties, i’i) Intensive properties.
i) Extensive Properties: The properties of a system which depend on the total amount of the material present in the system are called extensive properties.
Eg : Mass (m), volume (V), internal energy (E), heat content (H), Gibbs energy (G), entropy (s), heat capacity (v), etc. are extensive properties.

ii) Intensive properties : Properties of a system which are independent of the amount of the material in the system are called intensive properties.
Eg: Density, molar properties such as molar volume, molar entropy, molar heat capacity, surface tension(S), viscosity, specific heat, refractive index, pressure, temperature, boiling point, freezing point and vapour pressure are intensive properties.

Question 6.
Define the state function. Give two examples.
Answer:
State function: The thermodynamic function that depends on initial and final states of the substance but not on the path is called state function.
Eg Temperature, Enthalpy, internal Energy.

Question 7.
The equilibrium constant for a reaction is 10. What will be the value of ∆G° ? (R= 8.314JK-1 mol-1, T = 300K)
Solution:
From the expression, ∆G° = -2.303 RT logKeq
AG® for the reaction = (2.303) (8.314 JK-1 mol-1) (300 K) log 10
= – 5744.14 J mol-1 = – 5.744 kJ mol-1

Question 8.
Two litres of an ideal gas at a pressure of 10 atm expands isothermally into vacuum until its total volume is 10 litres. How much heat is absorbed and how much work is done in the expansion?
Solution:
We have q = – w = pex (10 – 2) = 0(8) = 0
No work is done. So no heat is absorbed.

Question 9.
Calculate the entropy change in surroundings when 1.00 mole of H2O(l), is formed under standard conditions ∆fH° = – 286 kJ mol-1.
Solution:
∆fS = [Si – Ss] = \(\frac{\Delta_{\text {fus }} \mathrm{H}}{\mathrm{~T}_{\mathrm{f}}}\)
= \(\frac{-286 \mathrm{kJmol}^{-1}}{298 \mathrm{~K}}\) = 959 JK-1mol-1

Thermodynamics Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 5

Question 10.
Given N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3 (g): ∆rH° = – 92.4 kJ. What is the standard enthalpy of the formation of NH3 gas?
Solution:
The heat of reaction ∆rH° is – 92.4 kJ mol-1
This is the heat of formation of 2 moles of ammonia.
The enthalpy of formation of 1 mol of NH3 = \(\frac{-92.4}{2}\)
= – 46.2 kJ
∴ Standard enthalpy of formation of ammonia = – 46.2 kJ

V. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are open, closed and isolated systems ? Give one example for each.
Answer:
Types of systems :
Basing on the fact whether energy or matter or both are exchanging between the system and the surroundings. The systems are classified into three types, a) open system b) closed system c) isolated system.

a) Open system :
A system which can exchange both matter and energy with its surroundings is called open system.
Ex: A liquid in an open vessel. It can absorb heat energy from the surroundings and can give heat energy to the surroundings during evaporation and condensation. Similarly water can go as vapour into the surroundings and vapour can condense as liquid into the beaker.

b) Closed system :
A system which can exchange energy but not matter with its surroundings is called closed system.
Ex : Water taken in a closed non-porous vessel. This can take heat from the surroundings and is evaporated. The vapour can condense back into liquid releasing heat to the surroundings. But water cannot leave or enter the vessel because it is closed.

c) Isolated system :
A system in which neither rnatter nor enerß,’ is exchanged with surroundings.
Ex : Liquid taken in a closed thermos flask. Heat can neither enter nor leave the flask. Similarly liquid or its vapour cannot go into the surroundings.

Question 2.
State and explain the Hess’s law of constant Heat summation.
Answer:
Hess’s law :
Energy changes remains constant whether the reactions takes place in single step or in several steps.
I. Formation of CO2: CO2 can be formed either in one step or in two steps.
a) C(graphite) + O2(g) → CO2(g), ∆H = – 393.5 kJ
b) C(graphite) + O2→ CO (g), ∆H = -110.5kJ –
CO (g) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g), ∆H = – 283.5 kJ
Total ∆H = – 393.52 kJ
Reaction ‘a’ is completed in single step and reaction ‘b’ is completed in two steps. But in both the cases energy changes remains constant, which proves Hess’s law.

II. Formation of NH4Cl (aq) :
a) NH3 (g) + H2O (l) → NH3 (aq), ∆H = -35.1 k.J
HCl (g) + H2O (l) → HCl (aq), ∆H = 72.9 kJ
NH3 (aq) + HCl (aq) → NH4Cl (aq), ∆H = -51.5kJ
Total ∆H = – 159.5 kJ

b) NH3 (g) + HCl (g) → NH4Cl (g), ∆H = – 176.1 kJ
NH4Cl (s) + H2O (l) → NH4Cl (aq), ∆H = + 16.3 kJ
Total ∆H = – 159.8 kJ
In both reactions (a) and (b), the heat of formation of NH4C/ (aq.) is the same, which proves Hess’s law.
Uses of Hess’s law : It is used to determine

  1. Heat of formation.
  2. Heat of reaction.
  3. Crystal lattice energy.
  4. Transition temperatures of allotropic forms.

Question 3.
Define heat capacity. What are Cp and Cv ? Show that Cp – Cv = R.
Answer:

  • Heat capacity of a substance is defined as the amount of heat required to raise its temperature through one degree.
  • The heat capacity at constant volume is represented by Cv. Cv gives the measure of the change of internal energy (E) of a system with temperature.
  • If heat is absorbed by the system at a constant pressure, heat capacity is represented by Cp. It is called heat capacity at constant pressure.
  • At constant pressure, when heat is absorbed the volume of the gas increase. While the gas expands it does some work, for which extra heat amount is required. Hence Cp always greater than Cv. The Cp is equal to change in internal energy and the work done.
  • The work done is equal to PV where V is the change in volume.

Relation between Cp and Cv :
For an ideal gas H = E + PV
Differentiating with temperature, \(\frac{\mathrm{dH}}{\mathrm{dT}}=\frac{\mathrm{dE}}{\mathrm{dT}}+\frac{\mathrm{d}(\mathrm{PV})}{\mathrm{dT}}\)
For one mole of ideal gas, PV = RT
∴ \(\frac{\mathrm{dH}}{\mathrm{dT}}=\frac{\mathrm{dE}}{\mathrm{dT}}+\frac{\mathrm{d}(\mathrm{RT})}{\mathrm{dT}}\) or \(\frac{\mathrm{dE}}{\mathrm{dT}}+\mathrm{R} \frac{\mathrm{dT}}{\mathrm{dT}}=\frac{\mathrm{dE}}{\mathrm{dT}}+\mathrm{R}\)
∴ Cp = Cv + R or Cp – Cv = R or \(\frac{C_p}{C_V}\) = γ

Question 4.
What is entropy? Explain with examples.
Answer:
Entropy means transformation. It is denoted by ‘S’.
Entropy is a measure of disorder or randomness in a system.
The greater the disorder in a system the higher is the entropy.
Entropy is a state function.
Entropy change (∆S) between any two states is therefore given by the equation.
∆S = \(\frac{\mathrm{q}_{\text {rev }}}{\mathrm{T}}\)
qrev is the heat absorbed by the system isothermally and reversibly at T during the state change.

A substance in solid state have lowest entropy because the particles are orderly arranged. The gaseous state of the same substance have highest entropy because the particles are moving most disorderly. The liquid state of the same substance have entropy in between the values for solid and the gaseous state.

For a spontaneous process in an isolated system the change in entropy (∆S) is positive.

Thermodynamics Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 5

Question 5.
Show that ∆H = ∆U + ∆ngRT.
Answer:
Derivation of ∆H = ∆U + ∆ngRT ; Change in Enthalpy = ∆H
Change in internal energy = ∆V ; Change in no. of moles of gas = ∆n
According to Enthalpy H = U+ PV ; Ideal gas equation is PV = nRT
Consider H = U + PV
∆H = ∆(U + PV) ⇒ ∆H = ∆U + ∆(PV)
At Constant temperature T, [∆PV = ∆(nRT) = ∆n(RT)]
∴ ∆H = ∆U = ∆n(RT)
∴ ∆H = ∆U + ∆n(g)RT
Hence Derived.

Question 6.
What is enthalpy of a reaction? Explain the standard enthalpy of a reaction.
Answer:
The enthalpy of a reaction is defined as the enthalpy change accompanying the chemical reaction when the molar quantities of reactants and products are the same as indicated in the chemical equation.

  • It is also known as heat of reaction. It is represented by ∆H.
  • The enthalpy change at the standard state conditions is called standard enthalpy of the
    reaction. It is denoted by ∆rHθ. The superscript (θ) represents standard state.
  • Standard state of a substance is its most stable state at one bar pressure and 298 K.

Question 7.
Define and explain the standard enthalpy of formation (∆fHθ).
Answer:
Standard heat of formation of a compound is defined as the heat change accompanying the formation of one mole of a compound from its constituent elements, all the substances being in their standard states (1 bar pressure and 298 K).
Standard enthalpy of formation of the substance is also called its standard enthalpy
and denoted by Hq. Standard enthalpies of free elements are taken to be zero.
Eg : C(graphite) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g); ∆Hθ = – 393.5 kJ

Question 8.
Define and explain the enthalpy of combustion (∆cHθ).
Answer:
It is the enthalpy change accompanying the complete combustion of one mole of a substance in excess of oxygen or air.
For example, the enthalpy of combustion of carbon is represented as
C(s) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g) ; ∆H = – 393.5 kJ
Combustion reactions are always accompanied by the evolution of heat, therefore, the value of ∆cH is always negative.

Question 9.
In a process, 701 J of heat is absorbed by a system and 394 J of work is done by the system. What is the change in internal energy for the process?
Solution:
dq = dU – dW ⇒ 701 = dU – (- 394 J)
⇒ dU = 701 – 394 = 307 J
So, the change in internal energy for the process = 307 J.

Question 10.
Calculate the number of kJ of heat necessary to raise the temperature of 60.0 g of aluminum from 35°C to 55°C. Molar heat capacity of Al is 24 J mol-1 K-1.
Solution:
q = m.c × dT
Where q = heat liberated ; m = mass of Aluminum 60/27
c = 1 molar heat capacity of Aluminium = 24 ;
dT = Temperature change = 55 – 35 = 20.
q = \(\frac{60}{27}\) × 24 × 20 = 1.067 kJ.

Thermodynamics Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 5

VI. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the experiment to determine the internal energy change of a chemical reaction.
Answer:

  • The change in internal energy ∆U in a chemical reaction can be determined using bomb calorimeter.
  • The bomb is a steel vessel. It is immersed in a water bath.
  • The whole device is called calorimeter.
    Thermodynamics Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 5 2
  • A combustible substance is burnt in pure oxygen supplied in the steel bomb.
  • The heat evolved during the reaction measured from the rise in the temperature.
  • Since the bomb calorimeter is sealed, the energy changes taking place in it are considered as that taking place at constant volume.
  • Temperature change of the calorimeter produced by the reaction is then converted to qv by using the known heat capacity of the calorimeter.
    q = -C × \(\frac{\mathrm{M}}{\mathrm{W}}\) × ∆T
    where ‘C’ is the heat capacity of calorimeter ; ∆T is the change in temperature
    W is the mass of substance ; M is the molecular mass of substance taken.

Question 2.
Explain the experiment to determine the enthalpy change of a chemical reaction.
Solution:

  • The change of enthalpy ∆H of a reaction can be measured in a calorimeter as shown in the figure.
  • However the calorimeter is kept open to the atmosphere.
  • The calorimeter is immersed in an insulated water bath fitted with stirrer and thermometer.
  • The temperature of the bath is recorded in the beginning and after the end of the reaction and change in temperature is recorded.
  • Knowing the heat capacity of water bath and calorimeter and also the change in temperature, the heat absorbed or evolved in the reaction can be calculated.
  • This gives the enthalpy change (∆H) of the reaction.
    Thermodynamics Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 5 3

Question 3.
Explain the spontaneity of a reaction in terms of enthalpy change, entropy change and Gibb’s energy change.
Solution:
The spontaneity of a process occurs on it’s own without external influence.
It is determined by the change in Gibb’s free Energy (∆G).
This combines the Enthalpy change acted (∆H) and the Entropy Change (∆S) of the system at a given temperature (T).
G = H – TS ⇒ ∆G = ∆H – T∆S
If ∆G < O (negative) indicates a spontaneous process.
If ∆G > O (positive) indicates a non-spontaneous process.
If ∆G = 0 indicates equilibrium reaction.
In terms of Enthalpy change (∆H)
This is heat absorbed or released during a process.

Exothermic reactions (∆H < O) release heat and tends to be spontaneous, especially at low temperatures.
While endothermic process (∆H > O) absorb heat and are usually non-spontaneous.
Entropy change (∆S)
Entropy is measure of randomness of disorderness of a system.
Process that increase entropy (∆S > O) tend to be spontaneous.
Temperature plays an important role when enthalpy and entropy changes have opposing signs.
Gibbs Energy : Gibbs energy is a thermodynamic function. This is the difference in the
enthalpy (H) and the product of entropy (S) and absolute temperature (T) of the system.
G = H – TS
Gibbs energy is the amount of energy available from a system which can be put to useful work at constant temperature and pressure.
The change in Gibbs energy for the system ∆Gsystem at constant temperature is
∆ Gsystem = ∆Hsystem – T∆Hsystem
If ∆Gsystem is negative (< 0) the process is spontaneous.
If ∆Gsystem is positive (> 0) the process is non-spontaneous.
If ∆Gsystem is zero the system has attained equilibrium.

Thermodynamics Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 5

Thermodynamics Class 11 NCERT Solutions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer. A thermodynamic state function is a quantity
a) used to determine the heat changes.
b) whose value is independent of path.
c) used to determine the pressure, volume, work.
d) whose value depends on temperature only.
Answer:
(b), A thermodynamic state function is a quantity whose value is independent of path.

Question 2.
For the process to occur under adiabatic conditions, the correct condition is
a) ∆T = 0
b) ∆p = 0
c) ∆q = 0
d) w = 0
Answer:
(c) ∆q = 0

Question 3.
The enthalpies of all elements in their standard states are
a) unity
b) zero
c) < 0
d) different for each element
Answer:
(b) zero

Question 4.
∆U° for combustion of methane is – X kJ mol-1. The value of ∆H° is
a) = ∆U°
b) > ∆U°
c) < ∆U°
d) = 0
Answer:
(c) < ∆U°

Question 5.
The enthalpy of combustion of methane, graphite and dihydrogen at 298 K are -890.3 kJ mol-1, – 393.5 kJ mol-1 and – 285.8 kJ mol-1 respectively. Enthalpy of formation of CH4(g) will be
a) – 74.8 kJ mol-1
b) – 52.27 kJ mol-1
c) +74.8 kJ mol-1
d) +52.26 kJ mol-1
Answer:
(a) – 74.8 kJ mol-1

Question 6.
A reaction A + B → C + D + q is found to have a positive entropy change. The reaction will be
a) possible at high temperature
b) possible only at low temperature
c) not possible at any temperature
d) possible at any temperature
Answer:
(d), possible at any temperature.

Question 7.
In a process, 701 J of heat is absorbed by a system and 394 J of work is done by the system. What is the change in internal energy of the process ?
Solution:
In the given case, q = 701 J, w = -394 J.
According to the first law of thermodynamics,
∆U = q + w = +701 + (-394) = +307 J.
Thus, internal energy increases by 307 J.

Question 8.
The reaction of cynamide. NH2CN(s), with dioxygen was carried out in a bomb calorimeter and ∆U was found to be -742.7 kJ mol-1 at 298 K. Calculate enthalpy change for the reaction at 298 K.
NH2CN(S) + \(\frac{3}{2}\)O2(g) → N2(g) + CO2(g) + H2O(l)
Solution:
For the given reaction, ∆ng = (1 +1) – (\(\frac{3}{2}\)) – 1 = +(\(\frac{1}{2}\)) mole ;
∆H = ∆U + ∆ngRT
We have, ∆H = 742.7 + (\(\frac{1}{2}\) × 8.314 × 10-3 × 298j (∵ R = 8.314 × 10-3 kJ mo-1 K-1)
=-741.5 kJ mol-1

Thermodynamics Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 5

Question 9.
Calculate the number of kJ of heat necessary to raise the temperature of 60.0 g of aluminium from 35°C to 55°C. Molar heat capacity of Al is 24 J mol-1 K-1.
Solution:
For n moles of a substance, q = n × C × ∆T.
In the present case, n = \(\frac{60.0}{27}\) = 2.22 moles.
Cm = 24 J mol-1 K-1 = 24 × 10-3 kJ mol-1 K-1 ; ∆T = (273 + 55) – (273 + 35) = 20 K
∴ q = 2.22 × 24 × 10-3 × 20 = 1.07 kJ

Question 10.
Calculate the enthalpy change on freezing of 1.0 mol of water at 10.0° C to ice at -10.0° C.
∆fusH = 6.03 kJ mol-1 at 0°C.
Cp [H2O(l)] = 75.3 J mol-1 K-1 ; Cp [H2O(s)] = 36.8 J mol-1 K-1
Solution:
∆H = Cp ∆T (at constant pressure)
i) ∆H involved in changing the temperature of 1 mole of liquid water from 10°C to 0°C
= Cp [H2O(l)] × ∆T = 75.3 × (0 – 10) = -753 J/mol – -0.753 kJ/mol
ii) ∆H involved in changing 1 mole of liquid water at 0°C to 1 mole of ice at 0°C
= -∆fusH = -6.03 kJ/mol
iii) ∆H involved in changing 1 mole of ice at 0°C (273 K) to 1 mole of ice at -10°C (263 K)
= Cp [H2O(s)] × ∆T = 36.8 × (-10 – 0) = -368 J/mol = -0.368 kJ/mol
∴ Total enthalpy change in the entire process
= – 0.753 + (-6.03) + (-0.368) = – 7.151 kJ mol-1

Question 11.
Enthalpy of combustion of carbon to CO2 is -393.5 kJ mol-1. Calculate the heat released upon formation of 35.2 g of CO2 from carbon and dioxygen gas.
Solution:

  • The corresponding equation is C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g); ∆H = -393.5 kJ/mol
    1 mole = 44g
  • Heat released during the formation of 44 g of CO2 = -393.5 kJ
  • Heat released upon, formation of 35.2 g of CO2 = \(\frac{393.5}{44}\) × 35.2 = -314.8 kJ/mol

∴ The value of ∆H involved in the formation of 35.2 g of CO2 = -314.8 kJ

Question 12.
Enthalpies of formation of CO(g), CO2(g), N2O(g) and N2O4(g) are -110, -393, 81 and 9.7 kJ mol-1 respectively. Find the value of ∆rH for the reaction,
N2O4(g) + 3CO(g) → N2O(g) + 3CO2(g)
Solution:
∆rH° = Σ∆fH° (products) – l∆fH° (reactants)
= {∆fH° [N2O(g)] + 3 × ∆fH° [CO2(g)]> – {∆fH° [N2O4(g)] + 3 × ∆fH°[CO(g)]}
= (81 + [3 × (-393)]} – (9.7 + 3 × (-110)} kJ/mol
= (-1098) – (-320.3) kJ/mol = -777.7 kJ/mol

Question 13.
Given N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g); ∆rH° = -92.4 kJ mol-1. What is the standard enthalpy of formation of NH3 gas ?
Solution:
Reaction corresponding to the formation of ammonia can be written as
\(\frac{1}{2}\)N2(g) + \(\frac{3}{2}\)H2(g) → NH3(g)
∴ ∆fH° [NH3(g)] = \(\frac{1}{2}\) ∆rH° = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × (-92.4) = -46.2 kJ mol-1.

Question 14.
Calculate the standard enthalpy of formation of CH3OH(l) from the following data.
CH3(OH)(l) + \(\frac{3}{2}\) O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(l); ∆rH° = -726 kJ mol-1
C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g) ; ∆cH° = -393 kJ mol-1
H2(g) + 1/2 O2(g) → H2O(l); ∆fH° = -286 kJ mol-1
Solution:
In the given data,
∆cH°[CO2(g)] = ∆fH° [CO2(g)] = -393 kJ mol-1
∴ ∆rH° = Σ∆fH° (products) – Σ∆fH° (reactants)
⇒ ∆rH° = {∆fH° [CO2(g)] + 2 × ∆fH° [H2O(l)]> – {∆fH° [CH3OH(l) + 3/2 × ∆fH° [O2(g)]
⇒ -726 = {-393 + 2 × (-286)} – {∆fH° [CH3OH(l)] + 3/2 × 0}
⇒ -726 = (-965) – ∆fH° [CH3OH(l)]
⇒ ∆fH° [CH3OH(l)] = +726 – 965 = -239 kJ mol-1

Question 15.
Calculate enthalpy change for the process, CCl4(g) → C(g) + 4Cl(g) and calculate bond enthalpy of C — Cl in CCl4(g).
∆vapH°[CCl4] = 30.5 kJ mol-1 ; [CCl4] = -135.5 kJ mol-1 ;
∆aH° [C] = 715.0 kJ mol-1 ; ∆aH° [Cl2] = 242 k.J mol-1
where ∆aH° is enthalpy of atomisation.
Solution:
The given data can be expressed as follows.
CCl4(l) → CCl4(g) ; ∆vapH° = 30.5 kJ mol-1 ………. (i)
C(s) + 2C/2(g) → CCl4(l) ; ∆fH° = -135.5 kJ mol-1 ………. (ii)
C(s) → C(g); ∆aH° = 715.0 kJ mol-1 ………. (iii)
Cl2(g) → 2Cl(g) ; ∆aH° – 242 kJ mol-1 ………… (iv)
The required equation is CCl4(g) → C(g) + 4Cl(g)
The required equation can be obtained as follows.
Equation (iii) + 2 × Equation (iv) – Equation (i) – Equation (ii)
Thus, we have, ∆H = [715.0 + (2 × 242) – 30.5 – (-135.5)] kJ/mol-1
⇒ CCl4(g) → C(g) + 4C/(g) ; ∆H = 1304 kJ mol-1
Hence, the enthalpy change for the given process is 1304 kJ mol-1.
Bond enthalpy of C – Cl in CCl4(g) = \(\frac{1304}{4}\) = 326 kJ mol-1

Thermodynamics Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 5

Question 16.
For an isolated system, ∆U = 0, what will be ∆S ?
Answer:
For an isolated system, ∆U = 0 and for a process to be spontaneous, the value of ∆S must be positive.

Question 17.
For the reaction at 298 K, 2A + B → C ; ∆H = 400 kJ mol-1 and ∆S = 0.2 kJ/K/mol-1.
At what temperature, will the reaction become spontaneous considering ∆H and ∆S to be constant over the temperature range ?
Solution:
When ∆G = 0, the reaction will be at equilibrium.
The temperature at which the reaction is in equilibrium can be obtained as follows,
∵ ∆G = ∆H – T∆S
T = \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{H}-\Delta \mathrm{G}}{\Delta \mathrm{~S}}=\frac{400-0}{0.2}\) = 2000 K
The reaction will be spontaneous when ∆G is negative. This is possible only at a temperature greater than 2000 K.

Question 18.
For the reaction, 2Cl(g) → Cl2(g), what are the signs of ∆H and ∆S ?
Answer:

  • The given reaction involves the formation of Cl – Cl bond. The process will therefore involve a release of energy, i.e., ∆H will be negative.
  • Further, the proces involves a decrease in the randomness because 2 moles of isolated atoms will have greater randomness than one mole of a molecule. Hence, entropy decreases, i.e., ∆S is negative.
  • Thus, in the given process both ∆H and ∆S are negative.

Question 19.
For the reaction 2A(g) + B(g) → 2D(g); ∆U° = -10.5 kJ and ∆S° = -44.1 JK-1
Calculate ∆G° for the reaction, and predict whether the reaction may occur spontaneously.
Solution:
For the given reaction, ∆ng = 2-(2 + 1) = -1
∴ ∆H° = ∆U° + ∆ngRT
= -10.5 + (-1) × 8.314 × 10-3 kJ mol-1 K-1 × 298
= -12.98 kJ (∵R = 8.314 × 10-3 kJ mol-1 K-1 and all substances are in standard states, i.e., T = 298 K)
Hence, ∆G° = ∆H° – T∆S°
= -12.98 – [298 × (-44.1 × 10-3)] = 0.162 kJ
Since, ∆G° for the process is positive, the reaction will not occur spontaneously.

Question 20.
The equilibrium constant for a reaction is 10. What will be the value of ∆G° ?
R = 8.314 JK-1 mol-1, T = 300 K.
Solution:
∵ ∆G° = -2.303 RT log10 K
We have, ∆G° = -2.303 × 8.314 × 300 × log1010
= -2.303 × 8.314 × 300 × 1
= -5744.1 J/mol = -5.744 kJ/mol

Question 21.
Comment on the thermodynamic stability of NO2(g), given
\(\frac{1}{2}\)N2(g) + \(\frac{1}{2}\) O2(g) → NO(g) ; ∆rH° = 90 kJ mol-1
NO(g) + \(\frac{1}{2}\) O2(g) → NO2(g) ; ∆rH° = -74 kJ mol-1
Answer:

  • In the formation of NO(g), heat is absorbed. Therefore, NO(g) has a higher heat energy than the reactants and therefore is unstable.
  • On the other hand, formation of NO2(g) involves release of heat energy.
  • Hence, NO2(g) has a lower heat energy and is stable.
  • Thus, unstable NO(g) changes to stable NO2(g).

Thermodynamics Questions and Answers AP Inter 1st Year Chemistry Chapter 5

Question 22.
Calculate the entropy change in surroundings when 1.00 mol of H2O(l) is formed under standard conditions.
∆fH° = -286 kJ mol-1
Solution:
The standard enthalpy of formation of H2O(l), i.e., ∆fH° is -286 kJ mol-1. It implies that formation of H2O(l) is an exothermic process and 286 kJ mol-1 heat is evolved. This heat is absorbed by the surroundings. Thus, qsurr = +286 kJ mol-1
Hence, entropy change in surroundings is
∆Ssurr = \(\frac{\mathrm{q}_{\text {surr }}}{\mathrm{T}}=\frac{286}{298}\) = 0.9597 kJ K-1 mol-1 = 959.7 JK-1 mol-1